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Exam Code: LOT-915
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In a Web 2.0 theme, which of the available REST services only allow for read access to the model?
A. Layout model
B. Portlet model
C. Content model
D. Navigation model
Answer: D

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NO.2 The IBM Lotus Connections portlets provide access to collaboration and social networking features
from Lotus Connections, such as Activities and Blogs. Which portlets are available from the built-in Lotus
Connections portlets package?
A. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles
B. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles, Ratings
C. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Tag cloud, Profiles
D. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Profiles, Ratings
Answer: C

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NO.3 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to develop a
client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A site needs to be created within portal with its own title, user repository, default content, and branding.
What single portlet is provided for creating a site within portal?
A. Content Authoring portlet
B. Theme Customizer portlet
C. Virtual Portal Manager portlet
D. New Site Creation Wizard portlet
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following options are advantages of using Lotus OneUI for a portal theme?
A. Keyboard accessibility with hover effects, also providing focus effects or equivalent facilitation.
B. The code base is tested for stability, accessibility, and bidirectionality in multiple browsers.
C. Every page is enforced to look the same regardless of content, disallowing different browsers to make
the pages look different under any circumstance or user input.
D. A and B are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A remote portlet is integrated into a portal implementation using WSRP. What new WSRP 2.0 feature
is enabled in WebSphere Portal V7.0 for sharing parameters with other portlets without wiring the
producer and consumer portlet?
A. Event operations
B. Cookie handling
C. Resource serving
D. Public render parameters
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with each other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has requirements to remotely search user profiles based on attributes of the profile using
web services. How can this task be accomplished in WebSphere Portal?
A. By means of the remote portal search service
B. By means of the remote PUMA SPI REST service
C. By means of the remote virtual member manager service
D. By means of the user repository APIs and wrap web services around API calls.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Aside from normal steps for deploying portlets to a page, what additional step, if any, is necessary to
configure a portlet using the Struts MVC framework and a portlet using the JavaServer Faces framework
to the same portal page?
A. Server-side aggregation must be forced on a page
B. Both portlets must comply with the JSR286 Portlet Specification
C. No additional steps are required
D. Framework JAR files must be added to WebSphere Application Server shared libraries
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is NOT a functionality provided by IBM Rational Application
Developer?
A. Wizards for creating portlets and portlet applications
B. WebDav client for working with Page Builder 2 theme
C. Ability to deploy portlets on a local WebSphere Portal server
D. Ability to deploy portlets on a remote WebSphere Portal server
Answer: B

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NO.11 John has developed a custom step-up handler. He has implemented the two methods init() and
establishAuthLevel() of the StepUpAuthHandler interface. What is the outcome of the method
establishAuthLevel() returning null?
A. A null pointer exception is thrown.
B. The browser is redirected to the portal login page.
C. The browser displays the HTTP error 403 Forbidden.
D. The authentication level is assumed to be successfully established.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements describes the value of the Vendor variable from the following portlet
code?
Profile p = (Profile) portletRequest.getAttribute(PortletRequest.CCPP_PROFILE);
String vendor = p.getAttribute("Vendor").toString();
A. It contains the name of the vendor of the portal server.
B. It contains the name of the vendor of the client browser or device.
C. It contains the value of the configuration key "vendor" for the Profile configuration service.
D. It contains the value of the "vendor" attribute for an identified or authenticated user, or null for an
anonymous user.
Answer: B

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NO.13 IBM Rational Application Developer provides an easy-to-use wizard for creating portlets. What options
best describes the portlet types that you can use while creating JSR 286-compliant portlets?
A. Basic, Empty, and Faces
B. Basic, Faces, and IBM Struts Portlet Framework
C. Basic, Faces, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
D. Faces, IBM Struts Portlet Framework, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
Answer: A

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NO.14 From what source does the Page Builder theme instantiate drag-and-drop functionality in terms of
portlets?
A. The <dnd:drag/> and <dnd:drop/> tags.
B. The theme Default.jsp sets parameters for the ibmPortalConfig object that define the drag-and-drop
behaviors for dragging portlets.
C. The Page Builder theme does not support drag-and-drop for portlets.
D. The theme Default.jsp instantiates drag-and-drop functionality by means of loading ibmCSA.js and
calling instantiateDrag().
Answer: B

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NO.15 What best describes the portal model REST services that are now offered with WebSphere Portal
V7.0?
A. Portlet model, content model, navigational model
B. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model
C. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, user profile
D. Layout model, portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model, user profile
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-038
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Fundamental)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Where does JavaScript defined with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) execute.?
A. browser
B. database
C. directory server
D. application server
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is one purpose of IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 adapters?
A. to send SMTP alerts
B. to provision VMware images
C. to send text files by FTP action
D. to provision and de-provision accounts
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which product can be configured with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager for auditing requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Security Operation Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Compliance Operation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
Answer: B

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NO.4 JavaScript is used in which IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 task?
A. ACIs
B. Reports
C. Data Synchronization
D. Provisioning Policy Entitlements
Answer: D

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NO.5 What can be achieved by IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business protecting IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager?
A. data sync
B. access control
C. roles management
D. federated identity management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which activity should be included during the requirements gathering phase for automating account
provisioning?
A. document reverse password synchronization
B. document challenge and response questions
C. document Self-Service Console requirements
D. document relationships between roles and accounts
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which policy type allows accounts and accesses to be validated periodically?
A. Identity
B. Adoption
C. Provisioning
D. Recertification
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is available to define the User ID for account provisioning in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1
(ITIM)?
A. HR Feed
B. ITIM Adapter
C. Identity Policy
D. Adoption Policy
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which task can be done using the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) Self-Service User Interface
application?
A. manage service profiles
B. manage password changes
C. export text files through the FTP transport
D. send e-mail notifications to the ITIM administrator
Answer: B

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NO.10 What configuration option is provided by the Middleware Configuration Utility?
A. create and configure the directory server
B. create and configure the application server
C. create and configure the HTTP Server plug-in
D. create and configure the directory integrator server
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are two output formats generated by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 reports? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. DSML
E. Microsoft Word
Answer: B, C

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NO.12 What is an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) service?
A. It represents a custom tool used to create an adapter using IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator.
B. It represents an instance of a resource such as an operating system or mail server that ITIM can
manage.
C. It represents an instance of a manage resource in order to provision identity policy to the federated
identity server.
D. It represents a user repository which a user can be provisioned and have access to modify XML; it also
represents SOAP 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which operation is valid when a user's identity is suspended given properly configured automatic
provisioning policies and roles in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1?
A. The user's accounts are suspended on managed targets.
B. The user's identity is suspended and the accounts are deleted on the managed target.
C. The user's accounts will be modified in order to grant access rights to managed targets.
D. The user's accounts are added to the suspended group on the Enterprise Directory Server.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is a function of an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. to log access activities on the managed resource
B. to provide reporting capability on a managed resource
C. to create and modify accounts on a managed resource
D. to create and modify password rules on a managed resource
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which attribute is required for an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager custom person entity?
A. cn
B. uid
C. mail
D. eraliases
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-534
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Fastback V6.1.1 Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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000-534 (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Fastback V6.1.1 Implementation) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-534.html

NO.1 Which installation type is selected when installing IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1
Mount/Instant Restore on a Windows system?
A. Mount
B. Modify
C. Advanced
D. Additional Applications
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which capability is provided by the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 (FastBack) Central
Control Station component?
A. A command line interface used to access FastBack function.
B. The ability to mount any snapshot volume from the repository.
C. A common location to monitor replicated snapshots and events from the branches.
D. The ability to copy from snapshots supported by the FastBack manager to a central location.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer wants to back up several Windows 2003 servers with SP1 installed using IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager FastBack V6.1.1 Client. Which two requirements must be known in order to create
a solution? (Choose two.)
A. power requirements of the servers
B. rack type the servers are located in
C. amount of memory the servers are using
D. amount of free hard disk space available
E. amount of heat the servers are producing
Answer: C. D

NO.4 What is the maximum size of a repository?
A. 8 TB for both non-data deduplication and data deduplication repositories.
B. 12 TB for both non-data deduplication and data deduplication repositories.
C. 8 TB for non-data deduplication repositories and 12 TB for data deduplication repositories.
D. 12 TB for non-data deduplication repositories and 16 TB for data deduplication repositories.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer wants to deploy an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 server on an existing
Application Server at a remote office because they have over 16 TB of unused disk space in this
designated server. Which two actions are appropriate prior to configuring the designated server? (Choose
two.)
A. review the memory type of the designated server
B. review the disk configuration on the designated server
C. purchase a new server instead of using the designated server
D. review the operating system configuration of the designated server
E. add a second LAN connection to the designated server and then register it with the DNS
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 Which action should be completed in the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 (FastBack)
Manager in order to configure IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)-based replication?
A. create a remote disk signature
B. mark the policy as a TSM-based policy
C. create a special client group with TSM clients
D. configure disaster recovery with TSM as a target
Answer: D

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NO.7 IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 (FastBack) offers granular alternatives of data recovery
at the local branch. What are two FastBack alternatives if configured at the disaster recovery site?
(Choose two.)
A. repository audit
B. offsite reclamation
C. roll forward recovery
D. volume snapshot restoration
E. single file recovery using temporary mount of selected snapshot
Answer: D, E

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NO.8 Which two repository types can be greater than 2 TB? (Choose two.)
A. NAS
B. File
C. Disk
D. Folder
E. Volume
Answer: D, E

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NO.9 The IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 client is installed on a protected system that runs
with a 64-bit operating system. Which two Linux distributions are supported? (Choose two.)
A. Debian Enterprise Server 10
B. Ubuntu Enterprise Server 10.10
C. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
D. Fedora Linux Enterprise Server 14
E. RedHat Enterprise Linux 5.2 Server
Answer: C, E

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NO.10 When planning an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 (FastBack) installation, which limitation
is correct?
A. The maximum number of protected FastBack clients per FastBack server is 20.
B. The minimum bandwidth between the FastBack server and the FastBack clients is 1 Gbps.
C. The minimum bandwidth between the FastBack server and the repository is 1 Gbps ethernet.
D. The minimum bandwidth between the FastBack server and the FastBack clients is 100 Mbps.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two statements are true in order to run the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Configuration
Wizard for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 (FastBack)? (Choose two.)
A. The FastBack server must be installed but not configured.
B. The TSM Scheduler should be installed on the FastBack server.
C. The dsmcad (Tivoli Storage Manager client acceptor service) must be running.
D. The TSM Backup-Archive client and the FastBack server must be installed on different systems.
E. The TSM Backup-Archive client and the FastBack server must be installed on the same system.
Answer: C, E

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NO.12 During the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 installation process, services and interfaces
can be installed by selecting which three options? (Choose three.)
A. Device Driver
B. Backup Client
C. Backup Server
D. FastBack Mount
E. Install CDP Workstation
F. Disaster Recovery Server
Answer: B, C, F

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NO.13 Which separate task must be completed prior to installing the DR Hub Server for IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager FastBack V6.1.1?
A. An FTP service must be installed.
B. An SSH service must be installed.
C. The server must be disconnected from the SAN (Storage Area Network).
D. No separate task is required; the procedure is completed by the FastBack Installer.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of clients a single IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 server
can protect?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.15 Why is it important to know the customer's existing architecture before designing an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager FastBack V6.1.1 (FastBack) implementation?
A. Port 1550 has to be open for FastBack Mount to work correctly.
B. Anti-virus and anti-spyware software might interfere with FastBack operations.
C. FastBack cannot be installed in Microsoft Cluster or Veritas Cluster environments.
D. FastBack cannot be installed on a system running other backup products such as IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Given 3 TB of data to store, what is the minimum space reserved on the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
FastBack V6.1.1 server repository?
A. 7 TB
B. 9 TB
C. 12 TB
D. 16 TB
Answer: D

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NO.17 A customer wants to upgrade their IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 client on Windows
2003. Which Windows component must be installed in order for the installation to succeed?
A. Secondary Logon
B. POSIX Server Service
C. Removable Storage Service
D. Component Services (COM+)
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer would like to size a new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V6.1.1 server
environment. Information required to get an appropriate size for the server and repository includes:
- The size of all involved systems to get the backup amount. - The amount of changed daily rate and the
data grow rate. What is the recommended size for the repository?
A. two times the data size the server is backing up
B. three times the data size the server is backing up
C. five times the data size the server is backing up
D. seven times the data size the server is backing up
Answer: C

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NO.19 A server backs up 5 GB of data. The expected growth of the data is 10% in five years. What is the
minimum size of the repository to meet the backup needs in five years?
A. 10 GB
B. 11 GB
C. 15 GB
D. 16.5 GB
Answer: D

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NO.20 A server with 40 volumes can be backed up to how many schedules?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 10
D. 40
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-601
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Solution sales V5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer recently ordered a zEnterprise with a zBX. Which of the following is the best action a
specialist could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A. Propose Advanced Technical Support Contract for the zBX
B. Enroll the customer in IBM Technical Support for BladeCenter
C. Schedule a workshop with administration and operational teams from all platforms included in the
zEnterprise system
D. Propose an Early Ship Program (ESP) for running their Windows applications
Answer: C

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NO.2 An HP customer has several HP/UX servers. The CFO is concerned about the lack of support for the
HP proprietary operating systems, and the strategic move to Intel servers by HP. The CFO is considering
a move to z10. Which of the following information should the System z Sales Specialist use to address
this situation?
A. Industry articles confirming the new direction for HP
B. Industry articles related to recent HP corporate issues
C. References of customers successfully migrating from HP to z10
D. Introduce the CFO to the IBM Migration Factory
Answer: C

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NO.3 A zEnterprise customer is interested in Parallel Sysplex. Which of the following is required to put
System z into a Parallel Sysplex environment?
A. A coupling facility, a z/OS partition, and a Sysplex timer
B. A coupling facility, two z/OS partitions, Server Time Protocol (STP), and coupling connectors
C. Two z/OS partitions, and a Sysplex Timer
D. A coupling Facility, a VM partition, a Server Time Protocol (STP).and coupling connectors
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has heavy Linux on System z applications and wants to acquire a new z196 which will allow
for 10 IFLs for production with an additional 10 IFLs for CBU to provide DR to another site. The memory
required is 1TB for production and 1TB for CBU requirements. Which of the following is the minimum
processor model that meets the customer requirements?
A. M15 z196
B. M32 z196
C. M66 z196
D. M49 z196
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer asks the System z specialist to recommend which type of channel (FCP or FICON) to use
for z/OS and z/VM Linux on System z. The customer is concerned about storage attachment. Which of
the following list all valid channel options?
A. - FCP and / or FICON for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS
B. - FCP for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS
C. - FCP or FICON for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS and z/VM
D. - FICON for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS
Answer: A

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NO.6 A prospective zEnterprise customer is fascinated with the addition of the zBX products. The sales
specialist is discussing the flexibility of System z family of servers. Which of the following is a key aspect?
A. Binary compatibility between servers
B. Hot pluggable processor and memory boards
C. Consistent CoD features with entire family
D. Ability to interchange features between systems
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer signed an order for a new z196 system. What document should be used to verify the
environment?
A. zEnterprise Red Book
B. SAPR Guide
C. zEnterprise Operations Guide
D. zEnterprise Product and Planning Guide (PPG)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A System z new IT Director has a defined policy of deploying all new applications on distributed
platforms. The Director feels these platforms are oodA System z new IT Director has a defined policy of
deploying all new applications on distributed platforms. The Director feels these platforms are ?ood
enough?and less costly than their mainframe. A new, WebSphere-based, mission-critical core application
is under development and the customer has asked for price quotes on the infrastructure for its
deployment. Which of the following meets these needs?
A. System z Solution Edition for WebSphere
B. System z BX for WebSphere
C. System z Solution Edition for Application Development
D. System z Solution Edition for DB2 and POWER7 servers for the application tier
Answer: B

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NO.9 Rising cost and complexity of distributed infrastructure due to "out of control" growth of servers
supporting development, test, and production of Web and Java applications is the biggest concern for
customer. Which of the following is the most complete advantage of Solution Edition for WebSphere?
A. Discounted price for System z hardware and maintenance, z/OS, DB2 for z/OS, and WAS for z/OS
B. Discounted price for System z hardware, z/OS and free maintenance for three years
C. Discounted price for WAS for z/OS and DB2 for z/OS
D. Discounted price for System z hardware and no charge DB2 for z/OS
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-612
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In the CFRM policy, what is the purpose of the PREFLIST?
A. To identify the size of the structure.
B. To identify all the DB2 members in the group.
C. To identify the preferences for DB2 restart in the event of a disconnection.
D. To identify the preferences for structure rebuild/reallocation during a coupling facility failure.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Workload Manager (WLM) manages how many concurrent stored procedures can run in an address
space and the number of concurrent stored procedures in an address space cannot exceed the value of
the NUMTCB parameter. Which statement about the value of NUMTCB is correct?
A. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for Java stored procedures.
B. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for REXX stored procedures.
C. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 for native SQL stored procedures.
D. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 when a stored procedure invokes DB2 utilities.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If a single row of the PLAN_TABLE has a 'Y' value in more than one of the sort composite columns,
what is indicated.?
A. The next sort step will perform two sorts.
B. There are multiple sorts in the plan step.
C. One sort in the plan step will accomplish two tasks.
D. Two sorts are performed on the new table of a star join.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What two parameters allow DB2 to keep a copy of a dynamically prepared statement in the cache?
A. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and CACHEDYN=YES
B. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and CACHEDYN=NO
C. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
D. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
Answer: A

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NO.5 What START TRACE command provides detailed lock suspend and lock contention trace information?
A. START TRACE(AUDIT)
B. START TRACE(STATS) CLASS(1)
C. START TRACE(PERFM) CLASS(30) IFCID(44,45)
D. START TRACE(ACCTG) CLASS(1,2,3) DEST(SMF)
Answer: C

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NO.6 When is a merge scan join a well performing access path?
A. When the number of qualifying rows of the inner and outer table are both large.
B. When the query references at least two dimensions and the STARJOIN subsystem parameter is 1.
C. When the number of rows in the outer table is small and the number of pages accessed in the inner
table is small.
D. When the matching columns of the inner table are in a non-clustering index or the outer table has
duplicate qualifying rows.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the DSNZPARM that determines the maximum amount of temporary storage in the work file
data base for a single user at any given time?
A. MAXRBLK
B. MAXDBAT
C. MAXKEEPD
D. MAXTEMPS
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which DSNZPARM will define the number of RID Blocks in the RID Pool?
A. NUMTCB
B. MAXRBLK
C. CONDBAT
D. URLGWTH
Answer: B

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NO.9 When converting a multiple table segmented table space to partition-by-growth table spaces, which
statement is correct?
A. DSMAX may have to be increased.
B. Storage requirements for EDMDBDC will decrease.
C. Storage requirements for some applications will increase.
D. The dynamic statement cache should be increased to handle the additional SQL statements.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two of the following DB2 performance features will ignore clustering in favor of faster insert
performance? (Choose two.)
A. Append
B. Inline LOBs
C. Member cluster
D. Volatile table
E. Include columns
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 Which DB2 trace is utilized to capture overall subsystem virtual memory consumption?
A. The DB2 audit trace.
B. The DB2 statistics trace.
C. The DB2 connection trace.
D. The DB2 accounting trace.
Answer: B

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NO.12 When DB2 detects at runtime requiring a large amount of data to be read, which prefetch method is
used more often?
A. List prefetch
B. Dynamic prefetch
C. Sequential prefetch
D. Skip sequential prefetch
Answer: B

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NO.13 In order to retain an access path across a rebind which of the following commands could be used?
A. BIND PLAN
B. REBIND PACKAGE(PK1) REOPT(ONCE)
C. BIND PACKAGE (PK1) EXPLAIN(YES)
D. REBIND PACKAGE (PK1) PLANMGMT(BASIC)
Answer: D

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NO.14 The EXPLAIN STMTCACHE ALL statement provides information about SQL tuning. Which information
is part of the DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE?
A. Filter factor information.
B. Stage 1 and stage 2 information.
C. Number of columns used in an index.
D. Number of times an SQL statement is executed.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What trace class will show deadlock information?
A. Audit class 3.
B. Statistic class 3.
C. Accounting class 1.
D. Performance class 8.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What IBM provided stored procedure will access DB2 real time statistics tables?
A. DSNAEXP
B. DSNAIMS
C. DSNACCOX
D. DSNLEUSR
Answer: C

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NO.17 What would be a reason for altering the clustering index of a table?
A. To increase free space.
B. Because the clustering index has to match the primary index.
C. To choose a clustering index to favor batch sequential processing.
D. To choose a clustering index to promote sequential inserts at the end of the table space.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is a consideration when specifying DATA CAPTURE CHANGES?
A. Can be specified for capturing changes to an XML object.
B. To minimize logging, specify NOT LOGGED when DATA CAPTURE CHANGES is specified.
C. REFRESH TABLE statement is not allowed with a table defined with DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES.
D. You cannot turn on DATA CAPTURE CHANGES if the table space is in advisory REORG-pending.
Answer: D

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NO.19 The available window to reorganize table spaces is being reduced. What data can provide information
to allow for a priority list of candidate table spaces for reorganization based on recent activity with no
recent RUNSTATS execution?
A. SYSIBM.SYSCOPY
B. SYSIBM.SYSTABLES
C. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXES
D. SYSIBM.SYSTABLESPACESTATS
Answer: D

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NO.20 In using plan stability, what storage space requirement should be of carefully monitored?
A. MINSTOR
B. DSNDB07
C. DSNDB01.SPT01
D. DSN_STATEMNT_TABLE
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M67
Exam Name: IBM (IBM LotusLive Technical Sales Mastery Test V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which platform(s) can a customer run LotusLive on.?
A. Windows only
B. Windows and Linux
C. Windows, Linux and Mac
D. LotusLive does not run on a platform because it has its own operating system.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Tags are a very popular way of searching the content. Bob has emails related to XYZ customer.
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B. Bob can right-click on all the emails related to XYZ customer and choose the tag option to find these
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C. Tagging email and Tag Searching is not available in LotusLive iNotes.
D. Bob can navigate to iNotes mail, select the tag words, select the related emails and create a rule which
can be used to search at a later time.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Taylor, a paid subscriber to LotusLive Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer.
How would Taylor invite his customer (guests)?
A. Taylor can share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask them to visit the LotusLive site and
enter the meeting ID to join. His guest will simply need to enter their name before joining.
B. Taylor customer could not participate in the meeting since they are guests. He would have to record the
meeting and send a link to the video recording.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID, but when the customer click on the link,
they will be prompted to register. Once registered, they can then participate in the meeting.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for his guest to get registered. Once registration is
complete, they could join the meeting by visiting LotusLive site, authenticating with their credentials and
entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M92
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Practical App Tech Mastery V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Actions are capable of reformatting dates.
B. Actions cannot change the value of a field.
C. Actions use message boxes to immediately report a failed rule.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The saved runtime batch structure, containing document and pages for a particular batch, is called
what?
A. The page file.
B. The Admin Database.
C. The task file.
D. The batch data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Detecting whether a form is signed is typically done with:
A. OCR
B. ICR
C. OMR
D. Parascript
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-385
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cogonos TM1 Master 385 exam)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three tm1s.cfg parameters must be unique to run two TM1 servers on the same production
server? (Choose three.)
A. ServerName
B. DataBaseDirectory
C. ClientMessagePortNumber
D. AdminHost
E. PortNumber
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.A client using TM1 Web, where the users are making a significant number of
changes, is experiencing sporadic delays during data entry. A snapshot of thread activity from TM1Top
was taken during a busy period as shown in the exhibit.Which proposed model/application change should
have a positive effect on this application's performance?
A. Make sure all dimension subsets are no more than 80 members long.
B. Defragment the TM1 server data directory hard drive.
C. Introduce use of Personal Workspace Writeback mode.
D. Introduce use of BatchUpdateStart() and BatchUpdateFinishWait().
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your TM1 server takes over one hour to start up. You want to speed up the start up time. You have a
multi-CPU production server and the cube rules in your TM1 application does not contain any conditional
feeders.Which tm1s.cfg parameter would you choose to help speed up the TM1 server start up time?
A. CalculationThresholdForStorage
B. AllowSeparateNandCRules
C. MaximumCubeLoadThreads
D. CheckFeedersMaximumCells
Answer: C

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NO.4 An object needs to be locked in which lock mode before modifications can begin on that object?
A. Read (R)
B. Intent Exclusive (IX)
C. ReadOnly (RO)
D. Write (W)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two logging parameters can be used to control how much disk space the log files consume?
(Choose two.)
A. log4j.appender.S1.MemorySize
B. log4j.appender.S1.MaxFileSize
C. log4j.appender.S1.MaxBackupIndex
D. log4j.logger.TM1.MultipleFiles
Answer: B, C

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Exam Code: COG-700
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Planning Application)
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Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Why would an administrator publish data to a table-only layout, instead of a view layout?
A. The administrator wants to publish only detail (non-calculated) plan data.
B. The administrator wants to publish the data to an Oracle database.
C. The administrator wants to use the published data with the Publish to Cognos Metrics Manager
extension.
D. The administrator wants to publish the data to a SQL Server database.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about sorting D-Cube data?
A. D-List items can be sorted alphabetically
B. Saving a D-Cube saves only the data but not the sort order
C. Rows can be sorted using one criteria and columns using another
D. An indicator appears on sorted D-Lists that allows switching of the sort order
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a distributed Cognos Planning environment, where is the online Contributor application stored and
maintained?
A. On the datastore
B. On the report server
C. On the job server
D. On the dispatcher
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a D-Link using a virtual dimension on the source side called?
A. Lookup D-Link
B. Internal D-Link
C. Allocation D-Link
D. Accumulation D-Link
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Cash Flow D-Cube tracks incoming and outgoing cash each month. The amount of cash going out
each month is always a fraction of the opening balance for the period (such as 20%). Which BiF should be
used to calculate the opening and closing balances?
A. @Movsum
B. @DelayDebt
C. @FeedParam
D. @StockFlow
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which method of mapping must the modeler use to change the sign (+/-) of selected data items being
transfered by D-Link?
A. Match description
B. Local allocation
C. D-Cube allocation
D. Saved A-Table
Answer: D

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NO.7 When importing from Cognos Package Data into an A-Table, what is the minimum number of query
items that must be selected?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

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NO.8 Users of the Contributor Web grid want to be able to import data from ASCII files and Excel files as well
as local Contributor dat a.
These end users do not have any rights in the Contributor Administration Console or Analyst. What must
these users create?
A. System Link
B. Administration Link
C. D-Link
D. Local Link
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration
extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?
A. A view only published data source
B. A table only published data source
C. A Contributor application data source
D. An Analyst application data source
Answer: B

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NO.10 A D-Cube calculates monthly revenue by product. Revenue for a product is equal to the unit sale price
multiplied by the quantity sold. If the modeler is applying a weighted average to the Unit Sale Price item,
which should be used for the weighting?
A. Revenue
B. Quantity sold
C. Number of months
D. Number of products
Answer: B

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NO.11 A modeler wants to create a macro that updates all D-Cubes in the model. What is the fastest way for
the modeler to create this macro?
A. Use the Macro Record option
B. Use the Macro Run option
C. Use the Macro Wizard option
D. Use the Trace Macro option
Answer: C

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NO.12 A modeler creates a D-Link that transfers data from an ASCII file called Franchise into a D-Cube called
Income Statement. According to proven practices, what is the recommended name for the D-Link?
A. Franchise>Income Statement
B. Franchise.csv>Inc State
C. Income Statement<Franchise
D. Income Statement<Franchise.csv
Answer: D

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NO.13 A target D-Cube in Analyst contains data for Central Europe, Southern Europe, and Northern Europe.
The modeler wants to transfer data into this D-Cube from an ASCII file that contains only data for
Southern Europe and Northern Europe. Given that all dimensions are paired using Match Description,
what must the modeler do to ensure that the Central Europe data in the target D-Cube does not get
erased when the D-Link runs?
A. Set the mode to Substitute
B. Assign Central Europe as the Dump item
C. Apply a "hold" command to data for Central Europe
D. Nothing; the D-Link will only transfer data for paired items
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Cognos 8 role is needed to ensure that only the required users, groups, and roles have access
to execute or schedule Contributor macros that are published to Cognos Connection?
A. Planning Rights Administrators
B. Planning Contributor Users
C. Directory Administrators
D. Server Administrators
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about using a D-Cube allocation in a D-Link?
A. The D-Cube used for the allocation can only have two dimensions
B. The D-Cube slice can contain data formatted as text, numeric, or date/time
C. A D-Cube slice can only be used for allocation in one D-Link
D. The D-Cube slice can only contain one page of data
Answer: D

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