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Exam Code: 1Y0-A17
Exam Name: Citrix (Implementing Citrix XenDesktop 4)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop remotely Click the Task
button to place the steps in
the desktop delivery process in the correct order Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to
complete a Drag and Drop item? What is the correct order of steps in the desktop delivery process?
Answer:
1.The users logs on the web site
2 The desktop delivery controller determines which desktop to give to the user
3 The web site sends an ICA file to the Desktop Receiver
4 The Desktop Receiver initiates a connection to the Virtual Desktop Agent
5 The virtual desktop is presented to the user

NO.2 An administrator changed the settings on the Desktop Delivery Controller so that it uses an assigned
static IP address instead of DHCP.Which result,when verified by the administrator,shows that the change
has been made and ensures that the virtual machines can successfully register?
A. The firewall ports have been changed
B. The Farm GUID has been added to the registry
C. The DNS has been updated with the new IP address
D. The Desktop Delivery Controller Service has been restarted
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator needs to configure pooled desktops for a large number of users and would like to
automate this process. To complete this task the administrator will need to use ___________ and
___________ (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence)
A. XenServer
B. XenCenter
C. Provisioning Services
D. XenDesktop Setup Wizard
E. Delivery Services console
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What is the role of the pool management service?
A. Clones virtual machines
B. Turns virtual machines on and off
C. Streams the virtual machine to the users
D. Assigns users to the correct virtual machine
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator needs to allow each help desk worker in an environment access to one virtual desktop
Which two types of devices should the administrator configure to allow each help desk worker to connect
to a virtual desktop? (Choose two)
A. Thin clients
B. Fat client devices
C. Remote computers
D. Repurposed computers
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Scenario: a user is attempting to access a virtual desktop The Web interface sent an .ICA file,but no
ICA. connection was established. Which component of the XenDeskop architecture has failed to
communicate with the virtual desktop?
A. Data Store
B. Desktop Receiver
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which component of the XenDeskop architecture has failed to communicate with the virtual desktop?
Which issue can the Profile Management feature address in a XenDesktop implementation?
A. Inability of users to stch between multiple profiles
B. Inability of settings to be saved against mandatory profiles
C. Profile bloat because extraneous files are copied to the profile
D. Printing failure because printer properties are not updated at each logon
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which component of the XenDesktop architecture uses Microsoft Active Directory,to find the controllers
that constitute a farm?
A. Desktop Receiver
B. Domain Controller
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator needs to configure existing hardware that will be repurposed to support connections to
virtual desktops. How should the administrator allow users to connect to their desktops in this
environment?
A. Using domain-joined Windows XP Embedded on a LAN and connecting through a XenDesktop
Ser4lces site to a virtual desktop in full-screen-only mode
B. Using a Windows XP device on a LAN and connecting through a XenDesktop Web site to a virtual
desktop with a Citrix Desktop Receiver window and a toolbar
C. Using a non-domain-joined Windows XP Embedded device on a LAN and connecting through a
Desktop Appliance Connector site to a virtual desktop in full-screen-only mode
D. Using a Windows XP device that connects remotely using Access Gateway through a XenDesktop
Web site to a virtual desktop with a Citrix Desktop Receiver window and a toolbar
Answer: A

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NO.10 A user needs to access a virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop on the corporate network for the first
time Click the Task
button to place the steps to access the virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop in the
correct order Click the Exhibit
button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item? What is
the correct order of steps to access the virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop?
Answer:
1.Connect the Macintosh laptop to the corporate network
2 Connect to the internal Web Interface site
3 Enter the Web Interface user credentials
4 Download Desktop Receiver from the web interface
5 Automatically connect to the assigned desktop

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A21
Exam Name: Citrix (Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A network administrator wants to ensure that connection multiplexing is enabled for all client
connections that hit a virtual server. Which service type should the administrator select to enable
connection multiplexing?
A. SSL
B. FTP
C. TCP
D. HTTP
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which IP address type must be unique to each NetScaler in an HA pair?
A. MIP
B. NSIP
C. SNIP
D. Load balancing VIP
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which manner can an administrator configure a NetScaler device so that it can load balance external
DNS servers.?
A. Configure as an ADNS.
B. Configure CNAME records.
C. Configure as a DNS proxy.
D. Configure as an End resolver.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator needs to configure a NetScaler device so that a set of back-end servers in a
LAN can initiate connections to the Internet. ACLs are configured in this environment. What must the
administrator configure to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. INAT on the servers in the LAN
B. RNAT for the destination IP addresses
C. NAT on the router to the NetScaler device
D. RNAT for the subnet that includes the LAN IP addresses
E. RNAT on the virtual servers bound to the servers in the LAN
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: A customer has an HA pair configured and is making interface configuration changes on the
primary node. However, the administrator notices that the changes are NOT being propagated to the
secondary node.
What is the reason for this behavior?
A. Propagation is not enabled.
B. HA pair licensing is missing.
C. Propagation is enabled, but synchronization is disabled.
D. Interface configuration changes must be performed on each node.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure VLANs on a NetScaler to support multiple
networks. The NetScaler is connected through interface 1/1 to a switch port where VLAN10 is configured.
This NetScaler is also connected through interface 1/2 to a switch port that is configured for VLAN20.
Given this scenario, which two steps does the administrator need to take to configure the NetScaler for
VLAN10? (Choose two.)
A. add vlan 10
B. set vlan 10 -ifnum 1/1
C. bind vlan 10 -ifnum 1/2
D. bind vlan 10 -ifnum 1/1
E. bind vlan 10 -ifnum 1/1 -tagged
Answer: A, D

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NO.7 Scenario: An administrator is working with a Citrix consultant to architect and implement a NetScaler
solution. They plan to use GSLB and DNS views in the environment.
In which two manners can the administrator configure the NetScaler system to be able to configure DNS
views that support GSLB records? (Choose two.)
A. Configure as an ADNS.
B. Configure as a DNS proxy.
C. Configure CNAME records.
D. Configure as an End resolver.
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 An administrator needs to configure a NetScaler system to dynamically advertise virtual IP addresses,
directly connected routes and static routes to the upstream routers.
What must the administrator ensure is configured on the NetScaler system for this environment?
A. RNAT
B. L3 mode
C. Static Routes
D. Health Check monitor
E. Route Health Injection (RHI)
Answer: E

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NO.9 Scenario: A financial company needs to maintain end-to-end security in network traffic. The company
also requires that an administrator reduce the CPU levels for back-end servers in their environment
because it requires end-to-end security.
Which setting on the SSL virtual server reduces CPU utilization on the back-end?
A. SSLv3
B. SSL Redirect
C. SSL Session Reuse
D. SSL Client Certificates
Answer: C

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NO.10 Scenario: A company has contracts with multiple ISPs and would like to use all of them for Internet
connections although some ISP routers are faster than others. The company also plans to use a
NetScaler system for load balancing and failover.
What can an administrator configure to ensure that all ISP connections are being used while avoiding
retransmission or out-of-order packets in this environment?
A. Multiple VLANs with Ingress rules
B. Link load balancing with destination IP-based persistence
C. Round robin load balancing with reverse RNAT configured
D. A load balancing policy with the appropriate preferred IP and preferred port parameters configured
Answer: B

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NO.11 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure routing on a NetScaler appliance. The NetScaler
is in a DMZ whose gateway is 10.54.80.1/24. There are no configured routes on the NetScaler.
Given this topology, which is the appropriate routing configuration for the NetScaler?
A. set default route 10.54.80.1
B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.54.80.1
C. set default route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.54.80.1
D. add route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 10.54.80.1
Answer: B

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NO.12 Scenario: A customer has two datacenters in geographically dispersed locations, both serving content
for a web-based application. Content for both datacenters should always be available.
Which method should an administrator use to make content from both datacenters available at all times?
A. HA
B. GSLB
C. Content switching
D. Backup load balancing virtual servers
Answer: B

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NO.13 Scenario: An administrator is managing a network environment that contains five datacenters, all of
which are in different areas of the same country. The administrator plans to configure the NetScaler
system to load balance the datacenters so that they can be used for disaster recovery.
How should the administrator configure the NetScaler system for disaster recovery and to optimize the
user experience?
A. Enable HA and use cache load balancing.
B. Enable HA and use server load balancing.
C. Enable GSLB and use the proximity method.
D. Enable GSLB and use the round robin method.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In which two ways could an administrator configure a NetScaler system to allow a Web server log to
record the original client IP addresses for incoming traffic? (Choose two.)
A. USIP
B. INAT
C. USNIP
D. Edge mode
E. Client IP insertion
Answer: A, E

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NO.15 Scenario: A company has contracts with multiple ISPs and would like to use all of them for Internet
connections. The company also plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and failover.
What can an administrator configure to ensure that all ISP connections are being used and return traffic
maintains the same path as the inbound traffic in this environment?
A. Round robin load balancing with INAT configured
B. Link load balancing with RNAT and USNIP enabled
C. Multiple VLANs with Ingress rules and USIP enabled
D. A load balancing policy with the appropriate preferred IP and preferred port parameters configured
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Y0-200
Exam Name: Citrix (Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7 Solutions Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A Citrix Administrator creates a backup schedule that will back up all of the available vDisks.
Which three critical file types must to be added to the backup schedule? (Choose three.)
A. BAK
B. PVP
C. VHD
D. LOK
E. AVHD
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented a Citrix policy to set up Citrix Profile
Management. After the administrator implemented the policy, users are still being required to set
up their applications each time they logon.
What is preventing the existing policy from working?
A. The .INI file does NOT exist.
B. There are no filters set within the policy.
C. The path specified to save the profile is incorrect.
D. The users need to be removed from the Citrix profile group.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Scenario: A company implements XenDesktop. Windows XP users are unable to launch their
Windows 8 virtual desktops. They receive the following error:
Error: Please contact your help desk with the following information: Cannot validate SSL certificate.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Citrix Receiver needs to be updated.
B. The SSL certificate on the NetScaler has expired.
C. The server certificate is NOT installed on the computer.
D. Citrix Receiver is unable to verify the server certificate revocation.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to adjust the size of a vDisk assigned to a
server OS machine? (Choose two.)
A. Create a new vDisk.
B. Edit properties of the vDisk.
C. Edit the .PVP file with Notepad.
D. Use BNImage to reverse the image.
E. Mount the vDisk on the Provisioning Server.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A Citrix Administrator updates a vDisk assigned to a group of pooled desktops.
Which two steps must the administrator take to ensure that the updated vDisk is associated with
the pooled desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Update the vDisk's inventory.
B. Promote the vDisk to production.
C. Place the vDisk into private image mode.
D. Recreate the pooled desktops associated with the vDisk.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What should a Citrix Administrator implement to improve logon times that are being affected
by profile size?
A. Logon Scripts
B. Offline profiles
C. Roaming profiles
D. Folder redirection
Answer: D

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NO.7 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator enables Citrix Profile Management for virtual desktop users.
These users are now reporting that their session logon times have become slow. The administrator
needs to gather data to resolve the issue.
To gather information on the slow logons, the administrator could use __________ or __________.
(Choose the two options to complete the sentence.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix Profile Management log files
D. Citrix Configuration Logging database
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 A Citrix Administrator is unable to create machines in Citrix Studio.
What are two possible reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The DHCP Service is NOT running.
B. The computer browser is NOT running.
C. The Machine Creation Service is NOT running.
D. The Active Directory Identity Service is NOT running.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to use Provisioning Services to create a vDisk from a
target device that has the latest hotfixes and security updates applied. The master target device is a
Windows 7 virtual machine running on XenServer.
What should the administrator do to create a new vDisk from the target device?
A. Run the Imaging Wizard on the target device.
B. Run the 'Add personal vDisk storage' wizard in Citrix Studio.
C. Run the target device software to capture the target device hard drive.
D. Use the 'Export' option in XenServer to create a vDisk from the target device.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When users launch their pooled desktops from Receiver through StoreFront, the following
error is displayed:
An error occurred while making the requested connection.
Which action could the Citrix Administrator take to determine the cause of this issue?
A. Read the client event logs.
B. Restart the StoreFront server.
C. Check that the SSL certificates are correctly installed.
D. Read the Delivery Controller logs and StoreFront logs.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-210
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSA NG)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 241 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Network topology exhibit
You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except
for the HTTP Server (192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public
services, and must be accessible from the Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this
scenario,
A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Answer: C, E

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NO.2 Check Point's NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and
Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
Answer: D, E

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NO.3 A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each
of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for
viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

CheckPoint original questions   156-210 braindump   156-210

NO.4 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint practice test   156-210   156-210

NO.5 Which of the following statements about the General HTTP Worm Catcher is
FALSE?
A. The General HTTP Worm Catcher can detect only worms that are part of a URI.
B. Security Administrators can configure the type of notification that will take place, if a
worm is detected.
C. SmartDefense allows you to configure worm signatures, using regular expressions.
D. The General HTTP Worm Catcher's detection takes place in the kernel, and does not
require a Security Server.
E. Worm patterns cannot be imported from a file at this time.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

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NO.7 What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement an address translation
solution for Certkiller .com.
The solution you choose must meet the following requirements:
1. RFC 1918-compliant internal addresses must be translated to public, external
addresses when packets exit the Enforcement Module.
2. Public, external addresses must be translated to internal, RFC 1918-compliant
addresses when packets enter the Enforcement Module.
Which address translation solution BEST meets your requirements?
A. Hide NAT
B. The requirements cannot be met with any address translation solution.
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IP Pool Nat
E. Static NAT
Answer: E

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NO.9 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement
Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install
Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this
to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.10 Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210 test questions

NO.11 Which critical files and directories need to be backed up? Choose three
A. $FWDIR/conf directory
B. rulebase_5_0.fws
C. objects_5_0.c
D. $CPDIR/temp directory
E. $FWDIR/state directory
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.12 Which of the following suggestions regarding Security Policies will NOT improve
performance?
A. If most incoming connections are HTTP, but the rule that accepts HTTP at the bottom
of the Rule Base, before the Cleanup Rule
B. Use a network object, instead of multiple host-node objects.
C. Do not log unnecessary connections.
D. Keep the Rule Base simple.
E. Use IP address-range objects in rules, instead of a set of host-node objects.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority
for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server
Answer: C

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NO.14 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

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NO.15 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.16 SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized
location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new
machine.
Answer: E

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NO.17 Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point
NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-210 exam   156-210

NO.19 You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1
Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose
two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there
is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement
Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product
information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the
product-data retrieval process will fail
Answer: A, C

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NO.20 You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to
the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who
must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210 exam   156-210   156-210

NO.21 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firewall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which of the following must be considered when licensing the
deployment? Choose two.
A. Local licenses are IP specific.
B. A license can be installed and removed on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 version 4.1, using
SmartUpdate.
C. You must contact Check Point via E-mail or telephone to create a license for an
Enforcement Module.
D. Licenses cannot be installed through SmartUpdate.
E. Licenses are obtained through the Check Point User Center
Answer: A, E

CheckPoint   156-210 braindump   156-210

NO.22 Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower
layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.23 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one
Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an "I" in
the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the
SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer
controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is
problematic.
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210

NO.24 Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point's Secure Internal
Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an
Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 answers real questions   156-210

NO.25 The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List,
and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Answer: A

CheckPoint exam simulations   156-210   156-210

NO.26 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

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NO.27 Which of the following are tasks performed by a VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartCenter
Server? Choose three.
A. Examines all communications according to the Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Stores VPN-1/FirWall-1 logs.
C. Manages the User Database.
D. Replicates state tables for high availability.
E. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.28 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

CheckPoint test questions   156-210 questions   156-210 test answers   156-210

NO.29 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 answers real questions   156-210

NO.30 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement
Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host?
Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-815
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert NGX)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to
install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which
of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?
<e ip="4-1.gif"></e>
A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule.
B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS.
C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs.
D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to
each other.
E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.2 After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle
license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license. Which of the following
commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires?
A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1
B. SetPNPDisable lic
C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0
D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0
E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-815   156-815

NO.3 When you set up Administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process,
which of the
following options is NOT available?
A. Regular Administrator (None)
B. Customer Superuser
C. Provider Superuser
D. Provider Manager
E. Customer Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 Identify the following Provider-1 configuration:
A. NOC
B. ISP
C. Standard
D. Point-of-presence
E. MSP
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815   156-815   156-815

NO.5 When configuring an MDS MLM from the MDG, which of the following are required?
A. MDS IP address and MDS type
B. MDS Name and CMA IP address range
C. MDS Name and MDS type
D. MDS Name and MDS IP address
E. MDS IP address and CMA IP address range
Answer: D

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NO.6 The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed,
enabled, and disabled using which of the following scripts?
A. SVRSetup
B. sysconfig
C. cpconfig
D. SetupUtil
E. EVRSetup
Answer: A

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NO.7 How many CMAs can each MDS manage?
A. Unlimited
B. 50
C. 500
D. 250
E. 200
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815 original questions   156-815

NO.8 As a Provider-1 Administrator, you are concerned about the security of your NOC. You decide to install
a NOC firewall and hire a firewall expert to administer it. Your firewall expert wants to institute some
security measures to increase the firewall's ability to protect the NOC. One of his ideas is to hide all of the
invalid IP addresses of the CMAs, by installing a Hide NAT Policy on the firewall. Will this plan work?
A. Yes, because the CMAs use virtual IP addresses, and they require a single valid IP address to manage
remote Security Gateways.
B. No, because Hide NAT does not allow remote Gateways to connect directly to the CMAs.
C. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of 0.0.0.0.
D. No, because VPN-1 NGX does not allow Administrators to configure Hide NAT on objects with
assigned virtual IP addresses.
E. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of the leading MDS interface.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Secure communication from CMAs to the Security Gateways uses which type of encryption?
A. Traffic between CMAs and Security Gateways is not encrypted. Therefore, no encryption is used.
B. IKE with pre-shared secret
C. 256-bit SSL encryption
D. 128-bit SSL encryption
E. RSA encryption
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific
Customer?
A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that
CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA's Gateway.
B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for
each configured
Security Gateway.
C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific
Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the
Gateway and the master's file is edited by the system.
D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log
in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its
list of log servers.
E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create
the CLM object,and add it to the Gateway's list of log servers.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which service does the MDG use to connect to the MDS?
A. SAM
B. CPD
C. CPMI
D. SWTP
E. SVC
Answer: C

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NO.12 When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and IP address range for virtual IP addresses
C. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface
D. Type of MDS and one-time password
E. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured
Answer: C

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NO.13 Does the Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintain multiple customer data bases, with each customer
data base relating to a single CMA?
A. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) does not maintain customer databases or CMAs.
B. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases with each customer
database relating to multiple CMAs.
C. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases managing one CMA per
customer database.
D. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain a single customer database able to relate to one CMA.
E. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintains one customer database able to relate to multiple CMAs.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.15 How many Multi Domain GUIs (MDG) can connect a Multi Domain Server (MDS) at a time?
A. 250
B. 5
C. unlimited
D. 500
E. 1
Answer: C

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NO.16 A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer's security policies.
What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment?
A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator and the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
Answer: D

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NO.17 How many CLMs can each MDS MLM hold?
A. 225
B. unlimited
C. 50
D. 500
E. 250
Answer: E

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NO.18 All Check Point Products come with a 15-day trial-period license. How many CMAs can be managed
by an MDS
Manager running with only the trial license?
A. 500
B. 1
C. 200
D. 5
E. 100
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the function of a CLM?
A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines.
B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways.
C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability.
D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack.
E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways.
Answer: E

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NO.20 To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window
Answer: A

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Total Q&A: 563 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Blocked connections

NO.2 Latency has lost SIC communication with her Security Gateway and she needs to re establish
SIC.What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?
1) Create a new activation key on the Security Gateway, then exit cpconfig.
2) Click the Communication tab on the Security Gateway object, and then click Reset.
3) Run the cpconfig tool, and then select Secure Internal Communication to reset.
4) Input the new activation key in the Security Gateway object, and then click initialize
5) Run the cpconfig tool, then select source Internal Communication to reset.
A.5, 4, 1, 2
B.2, 3, 1, 4
C.2, 5, 1, 4
D.3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: B

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NO.3 While in Smart View Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be
an intrusion.He decides to block the traffic for 60 but cannot remember all the steps.What is the correct
order of steps needed to perform this?
1) Select the Active Mode tab In Smart view Tracker
2) Select Tools > Block Intruder
3) Select the Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker
4) Set the Blocking Time out value to 60 minutes
5) Highlight the connection he wishes to block
A.3, 2, 5, 4
B.3, 5, 2, 4
C.1, 5, 2, 4
D.1, 2, 5, 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A.Asymmetric encryption
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Certificate-based encryption
D.Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A.Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B.Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C.Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D.Using domain objects in rules when possible
Answer: A

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NO.6 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?
A.HTTPS
B.FTP
C.SSH
D.Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.7 Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?
1) Simplified mode Rule Bases
2) Traditional mode Rule Bases

NO.8 You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway.After the SIC reset operation is complete, the
policy that will be installed is the
A.Last policy that was installed
B.Default filter
C.Standard policy
D.Initial policy
Answer: D

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NO.9 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3.You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4.You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5.Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6.What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7.In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8.The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9.The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10.You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

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11.The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12.You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e m po r a r ¡± rule u si n g Sm a r t D ashbo ard an d s el e c t hi d e ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13.The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.10 Gateway route table

NO.11 SIC certificates

NO.12 Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to
operate correctly?
A.514
B.256
C.257
D.258
Answer: C

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NO.13 Security Gateway R71 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the
response below that contains the most complete list of supported services.
A.FTP, HTTP, TELNET
B.FTP, TELNET
C.SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET
D.SMTP, FTP, TELNET
Answer: A

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NO.14 What can NOT be selected for VPN tunnel sharing?
A.One tunnel per subnet pair
B.One tunnel per Gateway pair
C.One tunnel per pair of hosts
D.One tunnel per VPN domain pair
Answer: D

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NO.15 SmartView Tracker traffic logs

NO.16 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:
A.A license can be taken from one Security Management server and given to another Security
Management Server.
B.Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
C.Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
D.The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of security Gateway.Each module s
license has a unique IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.17 SmartView Tracker audit logs

NO.18 When configuring the network interfaces of a checkpoint Gateway, the direction can be defined as
Internal or external.
What is meaning of interface leading to DMZ?
A.It defines the DMZ Interface since this information is necessary for Content Control.
B.Using restricted Gateways, this option automatically turns off the counting of IP Addresses originating
from this interface
C.When selecting this option.Ann-Spoofing is configured automatically to this net.
D.Activating this option automatically turns this interface to External
Answer: A

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NO.19 IPS Profiles

NO.20 Which type of resource could a Security Administrator use to control access to specific file shares on
target machines?
A.URI
B.CIFS
C.Telnet
D.FTP
Answer: B

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NO.21 You have created a rule Base Firewall, websydney.Now you are going to create a new policy package
with security and address transaction rules for a secured gateway.What is true about the new package s
NAT rules?
A.Rules 1 and 5 will be appear in the new package
B.Rules 1, 3, 4and 5 will appear in the new package
C.Rules 2, 3 and 4 will appear in the new package
D.NAT rules will be empty in the new package
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:
i) NAT decision is based on the destination port
ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated
iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only
iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A.(i), (ii), and (iii)
B.(i), and (ii)
C.ii) and (iv)
D.only (i)
Answer: D

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NO.23 Implied Rules

NO.24 A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT.Client side NAT is not
checked in the Global Properties.A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server.Assuming
there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the
Web server?
A.Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B.A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C.Nothing else must be configured.
D.A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.
Answer: B

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NO.25 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

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NO.26 VPN communities

NO.27 A rule _______ is designed to log and drop all other communication that does not match another rule?
A.Stealth
B.Cleanup
C.Reject
D.Anti-Spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.28 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.29 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

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NO.30 Manual NAT rules

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