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Exam Code: ST0-095
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations: Security Solutions 1.0 (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 207 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What is the primary purpose of change control in the context of security?
A. to apply changes that increase security posture
B. to prevent changes from decreasing security posture
C. to automatically apply security changes on a set schedule
D. to automatically undo changes that cause security problem
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is one of the benefits of the assessment step within the security policylifecycle, according to the
Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides the actionable configuration standards.
B. It allows organizations to understand where critical assets reside.
C. It educates the employees and manages the enforcement of a products.
D. It analyzes the policythrough interviews.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do the security program approaches rank in order from least mature to most mature?
A. compliance, risk, IT security
B. risk. compliance, IT security
C. IT security, compliance, risk
D. IT security, risk, compliance
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the primary benefit of a people-based workflow solution?
A. business process creation
B. centrally managed collaboration
C. coordination of web services
D. user-based task assignment
Answer: B

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NO.5 An employee's computer was recently infected by a virus due to opening an attachment received
through email. Which Symantec solution could have prevented this?
A. Brightmail Traffic Shaper
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Data Loss Prevention
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two questions are appropriate to ask a customer in order to uncover a need for Symantec
Control Compliance Suite? (Select two.)
A. Are you meeting your required backup windows?
B. Have you recently gone through a merger or acquisition, requiring new entitlements and controls?
C. Do you need to archive email for legal discovery purposes?
D. Is your operations team struggling to keep on top of IT audit-related tasks? DE. Do you need to ensure
critical servers are deployed by authorized personnel?
1linimize
Answer:

NO.7 Which challenge does security information and event management (SIEM) help solve for customers?
A. monitoring for performance problem on servers
B. monitoring configuration changes in applications
C. monitoring for business compliance issues
D. monitoring for security violations
Answer: D

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NO.8 How does a denial of service attack work?
A. It attempts to break the authentication mode.
B. It imitates the behavior of a valid user.
C. It cracks passwords, causing the system to crash.
D. It prevents a legitimate user from using a system or service.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a benefit of a security awareness program, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides an understanding of current system security settings.
B. It allows the organization to understand where critical systems reside.
C. It provides an understanding of the operational costs of security.
D. It ensures that employees understand their roles and responsibilities.
Answer:

NO.10 Which type of attack would be most successful against the password T63k#s23A?
A. cross site scripting
B. brute-force
C. dictionary
D.SOL injection
Answer: B

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NO.11 Malware that contains a backdoor is placed on a system that will later be used by the cybercriminal to
gain access to the system. The cybercriminal was successful in which phase of the breach?
A: capture
B: discovery
C: incursion
D: exfiltration
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which framework is used to manage change within an IT organization?
A. Management of Risk (MOR)
B. Information Technology Asset Management (IT AM)
C. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
D. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT)
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is a key benefit of integrating multiple security-related solutions?
A. automates administration across multiple security solutions
B. develops IT security policies across security solutions
C. consolidates critical data from separate security solutions
D. enforces user policies across unrelated security solutions
Answer: C

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NO.14 An employee has installed a video game on their company-issued laptop. Which Symantec solution
can prevent this installation in the future?
A. Altiris IT Management Suite
B. Endpoint Encryption
C. Brightmail Gateway
D. Security Information Manager
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which type of breach source is Albert Gonzalez, as mentioned in the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. well-meaning insider
B. malicious insider
C. cybercriminal
D. disgruntled employee
Answer: C

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NO.16 customer is experiencing image-based spam and phishing attacks that are negatively impacting
messaging flow. Which Symantec solution should be recommended to this customer?
A. Brightmail Gateway
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Network Access Control
D. Backup Exec System Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator wants to identify and monitor systems with weak or static passwords. Which
Symantec solution can help collect this information?
A. Data Loss Prevention
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Critical System Protection
D. Control compliance Suite
Answer: D

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NO.18 What do software patches affect within a company's environment?
A. applications only
B. operating systems only
C. operating systems and applications only
D. operating systems. applications. and hardware configurations
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which WO events could potentially be seen by a network monitoring solution in the context of
information protection? (Select WO.)
A. a program storing social security numbers in a SOL database
B. a hacker exfiltrating data out of an organization
C. a malicious insider emailing data out of an organization
D. an employee on their home ISP webmailing confidential data
E. an administrator incorrectly configuring email servers
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 What are most organizations concerned with when looking at risk as it relates to impact on an asset?
A. downtime B: . revenue
C. response time
D. exposure
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which Symantec solution can identify and block a malicious file from being downloaded in an HTTP
session?
A. Web Gateway
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Critical System Protection
Answer: A

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NO.22 What should be in place before automatically blocking confidential data leaving the organization?
A. hard drive encryption
B. well-refined data loss policies
C. email message encryption
D. endpoint management software
Answer: B

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NO.23 What is the purpose of defining a technical standard?
A. to identify minimum system configuration requirements for assets
B. to define roles and responsibilities within an organization
C. to create documented exceptions or waivers to a policy
D. to implement the guidelines directed by management
Answer: A

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NO.24 What does the Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT) framework focus
on, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. IT implementation life cycle
B. computer security concepts
C. international security procedures for audit
D. confidentiality. integrity, and availability
Answer: A

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NO.25 What is the primary goal when creating a security products?
A. to assist in the compliance process
B. to ensure systems have updated patches
C. to protect information
D. to report on system configuration
Answer: C

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NO.26 What are traditional, definition-based malware scanning technologies unable to identify?
A. new or unique threats unless a sample has been submitted
B. older threats or threats that are inactive in the wild
C. polymorphic threats that have been discovered in an antivirus lab
D. threats that are written to temporary locations in storage
Answer:

NO.27 Which two benefits does patch management provide an organization? (Select two.)
A. modifies usability or performance of a computer
B. removes vulnerabilities through software fixes
C. updates operating systems and ensures compliance
D. migrates the operating system
E. counts software licenses installed
Answer: B,C

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NO.28 Which WO topics did Art Gilliland state in the Security Solutions 1.0 course as areas that Symantec
plans to invest in? (Select WO.)
A. reputation-based security
B. identity management
C. cryptography
D. cross-product management and reporting
E. security of social networkinq sites
Answer: A,D

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NO.29 What is a critical success factor when implementing workflow software?
A. It should work well with application integration software.
B. It should work well with web security software.
C. It should work well with bug tracking infrastructure.
D. It should work well with network access controls.
Answer: A

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NO.30 A cybercriminal wants to break into an organization using a SOL injection attack. What will the
cybercriminal do to start the attack?
A. enter a command at a user prompt
B. locate a user input field on the company's web page
C. gain administrative access to the database
D. use SOL slammer malware
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ASC-099
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Archiving and eDiscovery 2010)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which two Enterprise Vault components require a dedicated SQL database? (Select two.)
A. Vault Store Group
B. Index Server Group
C. Vault Store
D. Index Volume
E. Vault Store partition
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support if a consultant fails to educate the
customer on the support process?
A. the consultant
B. Symantec Support
C. the customer
D. the project manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two main components of Data Classification Services (DCS)? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Oracle
D. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
E. Automatic Classification Engine
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Where can a consultant look to find diagnostic logging from an Enterprise Vault server installation?
A. Application Event Log
B. ev_client_log_[timestamp].txt
C. Symantec Enterprise Vault Event Log
D. EVinstall.log
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two are benefits of using Data Classification Services with EV? (Select two.)
A. re-classify content that has already been archived
B. assign retention categories based on the item's content
C. automatically delete emails that are not critical business records
D. automatically place items on E-Discovery legal hold
E. direct integration with the Clearwell E-Discovery Platform
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 What are two valid names for the scripts provided on the Enterprise Vault media to assist in configuring
the Vault Service Account (VSA)? (Select two.)
A. SetEVServicePermissions.ps1
B. SetEVExchangePermissions.ps1
C. SetEVThrottlingPolicy.ps1
D. SetExchangeThrottlingPolicy.ps1
E. SetEVExchThrottingPermissions.ps1
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which two ways should a consultant prioritize identifiable project risks as part of a mitigation strategy?
(Select two.)
A. probability of risk
B. sequence of risk occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project success
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A consultant must calculate the EV archival rate while delivering an assessment service. Which
database should a consultant query to calculate the archival rate?
A. Directory Database
B. Fingerprint Database
C. Vault Store Database
D. FSA Reporting Database
Answer: C

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NO.9 A consultant just deployed Domino Mailbox Archiving and is about to configure the Enable Mailbox
Message. Which file would need to be edited and placed in the root folder of Enterprise Vault installation?
A. EnableMailboxMessage.nsf
B. EVMessages.nsf
C. EnableMailboxMessageDomino.nsf
D. EVEnableMessage.nsf
Answer: B

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NO.10 How many Index Server Groups can a consultant associate with a Vault Store?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
Answer: A

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NO.11 What should a consultant do when configuring the pagefile on a system running the Indexing Service.?
A. The pagefile should be located on volume where active indexes are located for best performance.
B. The pagefile should be set to be managed by the OS.
C. The pagefile should be set to 1x of the RAM.
D. The pagefile should be set to 1.5x of the RAM.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the minimum amount of memory required to support 64-bit Indexing?
A. 2GB
B. 4GB
C. 8GB
D. 16GB
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two prerequisites are required to install the Enterprise Vault Administration Console on a
stand-alone workstation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer Web Controls
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 or higher
C. Microsoft Windows Administration Tools Pack
D. Microsoft Internet Information Services
E. Microsoft Exchange Management Console
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 In order to back up Enterprise Vault with NetBackup, which Enterprise Vault components require the
NetBackup client?
A. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the Discovery Accelerator Server
B. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the SQL Server
C. the EV Server and the DA Server
D. the EV Server and the SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.15 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A. ongoing tech support
B. review of the configuration report
C. thirty day post deployment guidance
D. periodic assessment
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-097
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.7 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.10 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.12 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.14 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.15 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.16 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.17 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.20 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-130
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs to review several Symantec Management Console reports daily and would like
to have them in a single view. How can the reports be combined into a single view?
A. create a custom dashboard that merges the reports
B. create a custom portal page that displays each of the reports as web parts
C. export the reports and import them into one custom folder
D. link each of the reports to a single custom sub-menu item
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two services can a Site Server provide? (Select two.)
A. Package Service
B. OAB Service
C. Task Service
D. AEXSVC Service
E. Replication Service
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which policies run on Notification Server and are not concerned with agent activity on managed
computers?
A. Automation policies
B. Target-based policies
C. User-based policies
D. Filter-based policies
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by prompting Altiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

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NO.8 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without administrative
intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the Symantec recommended method for a Service Desk agent to use to install the Altiris Agent
when visiting a user's cubicle?
A. Manual Pull
B. Manual Push
C. Scheduled Push
D. Agent Upgrade Policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator has joined a computer to a domain managed by Microsoft Active Directory.
Which two items must the administrator enable to automate the installation of the Altiris Agent on this
computer.? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent for Windows - Install policy
B. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed filter
C. Microsoft Active Directory import rule
D. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed target
E. Scheduled Push to Computers policy
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is a properly configured middleware computer known as?
A. Task Service
B. Subnet Server
C. Site Server
D. Package Server
Answer: C

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NO.13 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers. Which menu item should the
administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.15 Under which menu option are filters located in the Symantec Management Console?
A. Manage
B. Settings
C. Actions
D. Home
Answer: A

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NO.16 How long are User-based policies cached on a managed computer?
A. one week
B. one month
C. two weeks
D. two months
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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NO.18 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-118
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange Technical Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 318 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE.

NO.2 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: CDE

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NO.4 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.6 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each group. How
many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in the
environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: AD

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NO.10 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.11 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: ABE

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NO.12 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC.

NO.13 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.14 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.15 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.16 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: BD

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NO.18 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.19 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions
should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.20 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.22 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.23 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.24 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.25 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.26 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.27 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC.

NO.28 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.29 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.30 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-147
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix Technical Assessment )
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Total Q&A: 253 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.7 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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NO.8 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-316
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2012)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?
A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec
B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data
C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs
D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs to restore multiple emails from a GRT enabled backup of Exchange to a file.
Which file format will be created?
A. .MSG
B. .CAB
C. .PST
D. .OST
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

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NO.4 In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which
two sources? (Select two.)
A. all differential backups
B. all full backups
C. most recent snap
D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled
E. most recent full backup
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 An administrator plans to use Symantec Backup Exec 2012 data deduplication capabilities to protect a
Hyper-V environment. The administrator needs to leverage client-side deduplication and image-based
backups of the Hyper-V virtual machines. How does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 accomplish this task?
A. The Agent for Windows installed on the Hyper-V host performs client-side deduplication.
B. Backup data is deduplicated "in flight" during transport to the Symantec Backup Exec server.
C. Hyper-V virtual machines use the .VHD format for virtual disks, which is deduplicated by definition.
D. The PureDisk client installed to the Hyper-V secondary server performs client-side deduplication.
Answer: A

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NO.6 For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in
"Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery
Technology" be modified? (Select two.)
A. when the default path is the system volume
B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter
C. when the default path is NTFS
D. when the default path is FAT32
E. when the default path contains the Windows page file
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
to Microsoft Active Directory? (Select two.)
A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 A job runs with a custom error-handling rule in addition to the default error-handing rule. What will
happen?
A. The custom error-handling rule will apply.
B. The default error-handling rule will apply.
C. The job will fail.
D. The administrator will be prompted to select the rule.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

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NO.14 An administrator needs to use the Agent for VMware and Hyper-V to protect a VMware virtual machine
hosting Microsoft Exchange. The administrator needs to restore granular application objects, such as
emails, from the backup sets that are captured from the virtual machine hosting Exchange. Which action
should the administrator take before configuring a backup definition for the virtual machine hosting
Exchange?
A. run the Exchange optimizer utility
B. manually install VMware tools on the virtual machine
C. install the Agent for Windows on the virtual machine hosting Exchange
D. manually truncate Exchange transaction logs
Answer: C

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NO.15 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

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