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Exam Code: HP0-D11
Exam Name: Designing HP Virtualization Solutions [2010]
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HP0-D11 Practice Test Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-29

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Exam Code: HP2-Z28
Exam Name: Selling HP Enterprise Networking Solutions and Services
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Last Update: 2014-05-29

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Exam Code: HP0-J18
Exam Name: Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions
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NO.1 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Product benefits often connect directly to customer business requirements that
represent opportunities for virtualization. Some examples of this include such things as accelerating
growth, reducing costs, lessening risk, and improving manageability and security.
Match each requirement to the way that virtualization helps a business achieve it.
Answer:

NO.2 Which HP StorageWorks products or solutions provide virtualized scale-up storage? (Select two.)
A. X9000 Network Storage Systems
B. HPStorageWorks 4400 Scalable NAS File Services
C. X5000 Storage Systems
D. P4000 SAN Solutions
E. Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA)
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 An EVA solution, currently managed by an Array-Based Management (ABM), will be expanded to a
Continuous Access solution. Which prerequisite must be met in order to implement the solution?
A. register SVSP Continuous Access licenses inCommandView EVA
B. install HP Insight Remote Support Standard on physical server
C. register Business Copy licenses in CommandView EVA
D. switchCommandView EVA to Server-Based Management (SBM)
Answer: D

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NO.4 LACCD is the largest community college district in the United States, educating more than 130,000
students at nine campuses spread throughout 36 cities in the greater Los Angeles area.
What are some of the business requirements that led LACCD to migrate from a distributed
desktop PC architecture to an HP Client Virtualization Solution? (Select two.)
A. Educational institutions like LACCD must meet a broad range of requirements defined by users.
B. LACCD was in the midst of a downsizing and consolidation initiative.
C. LACCD could dictate technology capabilities from the top down.
D. School administrators at LACCD use a wide variety of applications where security is essential.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 What are indications that a business needs virtualization? (Select two.)
A. applications and business services not being delivered on time
B. IT operations that are minimally impacted by business fluctuations
C. under-utilized IT infrastructure
D. reductions in maintenance windows
Answer: A,C

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HP2-K16 VCE Dumps, HP0-J35 VCE Dumps

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Exam Code: HP2-K16
Exam Name: Selling HP StorageWorks XP Disk Arrays
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Exam Code: HP0-J35
Exam Name: HP Data Protector software Application Integration-Windows
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NO.1 Which HP Adaptive Infrastructure enabler aggregates physical resources, and presents those
resources as capabilities that can be used by applications, desktop clients, or other types of storage
clients?
A. automation
B. virtualization
C. management
D. IT systems and services
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Adaptive Infrastructure key enabler allows customers to shift the focus of their human resources
from maintenance-related tasks to more strategic or innovative requirements?
A. security
B. automation
C. virtualization
D. power and cooling
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer wants to discuss the industry trend toward organizations developing a 24 x 7 lights-out data
center. Which HP business technology strategy addresses this trend?
A. Grid Computing
B. Adaptive Infrastructure
C. Business Information Optimization
D. Business Technology Optimization
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which HP StorageWorks Disk Array software shifts most of the replication workload to the remote site,
reducing resource consumption on the primary storage system and improving production application
performance?
A. XP External Storage
B. XP Replication Monitor
C. XP Continuous Access Journal
D. XP Continuous Access Asynchronous
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which term describes how business technology results are measured?
A. reduced costs
B. strategic growth
C. business enablers
D. business outcomes
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HH0-230
Exam Name: HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise
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Exam Code: HH0-220
Exam Name: HDS Certified Implmenter-Modular
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Exam Code: HH0-250
Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Implementer File Services-NAS
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NO.1 According to Hitachi Data Systems best practices, how should storage pools, file systems and virtual
servers be configured?
A. The file system auto-expansion feature should be used to expand a file system across different storage
pools.
B. Storage pools should be created with system drives of identical performance and size.
C. File systems should be shared across multiple virtual servers for redundancy.
D. File systems from the same storage pool should be assigned to virtual servers on different Hitachi NAS
Platform nodes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement describes the Hitachi NAS Platform file system architecture?
A. The file system size may be reduced non-disruptively.
B. The file system is not subject to fragmentation.
C. The file system unifies directory structure and presents a single logical view.
D. The file system spans across multiple storage pools.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Fibre Channel (FC) speed settings are supported on the Hitachi NAS Platform host ports?
A. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 1 Gb is the default.
B. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 2 Gb is the default.
C. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 4 Gb is the default.
D. The FC host ports support 2 Gb, 4 Gb, or 8 Gb, where 8 Gb is the default.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When performing a microcode upgrade, what information is stored in the cluster/server configuration
backup? (Choose three.)
A. network configuration
B. cluster node names
C. CIFS share names
D. Quorum Device (QD) configuration
E. NFS export names
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 Your customer has files that they would like to reverse migrate using Data Migrator. Which two valid
arguments can be used to specify the files? (Choose two.)
A. inode
B. pattern
C. acl
D. age
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What are two valid steps when upgrading the SMU software in a Hitachi NAS Platform 3080 cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. Mount the CD using the command "mount /dev/*.iso".
B. Mount the CD using the command "mount /media/cdrecorder".
C. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 9600 b/s, 8, 1, no parity,
no flow control settings.
D. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 115200 b/s, 8, 1, no
parity, no flow control settings.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which two advanced networking features can be used to optimize network throughput within the Hitachi
NAS Platform.? (Choose two.)
A. jumbo frames
B. Cisco Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)
C. 802.3ad Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
D. 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A large movie production studio approaches an HDS sales team with a request to build a large
rendering farm. Their environment consists of UNIX and Linux operating systems. They want the servers
to access a Hitachi NAS Platform. Which file service would have to be enabled to allow access?
A. SSH
B. WebDAV
C. HTTP
D. NFS
Answer: D

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Exam Code: GB0-320
Exam Name: Constructing Enterprise-level Switching Networks
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Exam Code: GB0-190
Exam Name: Construction Small-and Medium-Sized Enterprise Network
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NO.1 PN:0,status:NOPAT,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512
VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
B.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102
4VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1212288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
C.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1212289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
D.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51Answer:D

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23. 2Mbps
______
A. V.24
B. RTA baudrate2048000
C. RTB baudrate2048000
D. RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
E. RTA bandrate2048000 RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
Answer:B

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24. ISDNDCC MSR dialer-rule
[MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000
A. ACL3000
B. ACL3000
C. permit deny
D. [MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000permit
Answer:A

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25. MSR RTA RTB Serial1/0
RTA
[RouterA-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf[RouterA-Serial1/0]ipaddress10.1.1.130[RouterA-Seria11/0]frmapip1
0.1.1.230RTB
[RouterB-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf
[RouterB-Serial1/0]interfaceserial0/0.1[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]ipaddress10.1.1.230[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]frm
apip10.1.1.130
______
A. DLCI RTA ping RTBB. RTA ping 10.1.1.2C. RTA
ping 10.1.1.2D. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2E. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2Answer:BD26. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AB

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27. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:CD

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28. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AC

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29. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BD

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30. delay
______
A. propagationdelay
B. switchingdelay
C. accessdelay
D. queuingdelay
Answer:ABCD

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NO.2 IP 202.135.111.77 ________________
Answer:202.135.111.2554. TCP SYN Z ________
A.a
B.b
C.a+1
D.b+1
Answer:D

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5.FTP ______
A.20
B.21
C.23
D.22
Answer:B

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6. ______
A.startupB.boot-loaderC.bootfileD.bootstartupAnswer:B7. MTU
MTU ______ ping
A.-a
B.-d
C.-f
D.-c
Answer:C

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8. STP BPDU
______
A.Blocking
B.Listening
C.Learning
D.Forwarding
E.Waiting
F.Disable
Answer:B

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9. STP SWA
_______ Blocking
A.SWC P1B.SWC P2C.SWD P1D.SWD P2E.
Answer:BD

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10. SWA 0 ______
A.[SWA]stppriority0
B.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stppriority0
C.[SWA]stprootpriority0
D.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stprootpriority0
Answer:A

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11.IP 10.0.10.32 255.255.255.224 ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:B

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12.IP 132.119.100.200 255.255.255.240 ______
A.132.119.100.207
B.132.119.100.255
C.132.119.100.193
D.132.119.100.223
Answer:A

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13.TFTP ______
A.67
B.68
C.69
D.53
Answer:C

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14. Windows ARP
A.displayarp
B.arp-a
C.arp-d
D.showarp
Answer:B

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15.
HostA----GE0/0--MSR-1--S1/0-----WAN-----S1/0--MSR-2--GE0/0----HostB
MSR MSR-1 S1/0 3.3.3.1/30
MSR-2 S1/0 3.3.3.2/30 MSR-1
iproute-static192.168.1.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2iproute-static192.168.2.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
192.168.0.0/22 HostB
A. MSR-1
B. MSR-1
C. iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.252.03.3.3.2
D. MSR-1
Answer:AC

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16.
A.IGP
B.OSPF
C.RIPv1
D.RIPv2
Answer:CD

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17. MSR IP GE0/0
RTA
[RTA]ospf[RTA-ospf-1]area0[RTA-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTA-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority2RTB
[RTB]ospf[RTB-ospf-1]area0[RTB-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTB-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority
OSPF ______
A.OSPF 192.168.1.0/30 OSPFDR
B. DR BDRC. DR DRotherD.
FULL 2-WayAnswer:B18.
0.0.0.0 S0/0
______
A. 120.1.1.1
B.
C. 3
D. 100
Answer:ABCD

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19. RIP MSR
<MSR>displayiprouting-table6.6.6.6RoutingTable:PublicSummaryCount:2Destination/MaskProtoPreCost
NextHopInterface6.6.6.0/24RIP1001100.1.1.1GE0/06.0.0.0/8Static600100.1.1.1GE0/0
6.6.6.6 ______
A. RIP
B. RIP
C. Cost
D.
Answer:A

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20. MSR RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPFArea0 RTB
RTC RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 IP 192.168.3.2/24 192.168.4.2/24 RTA
[MSR-ospf-1]area0.0.0.0[MSR-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.00.0.3.255[MSR-GigabitEthernet0/0]
ospfcost2[MSR-GigabitEthernet1/0]ospfdr-priority0
_____
A. MSR GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPF
B. MSR GE0/0 OSPF
C.RTA GE DRD.RTA GE DRE.
GE0/0 Cost OSPF
Answer:BDE

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21. GigabitEthernet0/0 HostA IP 192.168.0.2/24
Serial6/0 ACL
firewallenablefirewalldefaultpermitaclnumber3003rule0permittcprule5permiticmpaclnumber2003rule0den
ysource192.168.0.00.0.0.255inerfaceGigabitEthernet0/0firewallpacket-filter3003inboundfirewallpacket-filt
er2003outboundipaddress192.168.0.1255.255.255.0interfaceSerial6/0link-protocolppp
ipaddress6.6.6.2255.255.255.0
______
A.HostA ping
B.HostA ping 6.6.6.2 ping 192.168.0.1C.HostA ping 192.168.0.1
ping 6.6.6.2D.HostA Telnet
Answer:CD

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22. RTA NAT
[RTA]aclnumber2000[RTA-acl-basic-2000]rule0permitsource10.0.0.00.0.0.255[RTA-acl-basic-2000]natad
dress-group1200.76.28.11200.76.28.11[RTA]interfaceEthernet0/1[RTA-Ethernet0/1]natoutbound2000add
ress-group1
Client_A Client_B Server RTA NAT ______
A.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102

NO.3 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BC

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NO.4 OSI ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:A

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NO.1 A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include __________.
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
Answer: D

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NO.2 When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will __________.
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the __________.
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client
C. Call Flow Assistant
D. WatchDog
Answer: D

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NO.4 Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when __________.
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which CLI command would you use to configure the switch to ignore STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd> vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
Answer: D

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NO.2 This type of OSPF router has its router interfaces connected into multiple OSPF areas.
A. ASBR.
B. ABR.
C. DR.
D. BDR.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The CLI console port utilizes a serial cable for physical switch to terminal connection.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.4 A 802.1Q tag is a marker inserted between the source and destination MAC addresses fields of the
Ethernet frame.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.5 Extreme Networks switches build their forwarding database from the incoming packet field information
containing the:
A. Source MAC address.
B. Destination MAC address.
C. Source IP address.
D. Destination IP address.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which of the following CLI commands would you use to enable ECMP for RIP?
A. enable rip route sharing
B. enable route sharing rip
C. enable iproute sharing
D. None of these, ecmp is not supported by RIP
Answer: D

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NO.7 ExtremeWare, pre-installed on every Extreme Networks ?chipset switch, combines industry standard
protocols to ensure interoperability with legacy switches and routers, QoS for bandwidth management
and traffic prioritization in today networks.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which CLI command would you use to create a default route with a metric of 5 and a gateway of
10.0.0.1?
A. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
B. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
C. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
D. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
Answer:A

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NO.1 While logged in as a tenant administrator you begin creating the user accounts for that tenant.
You want to assign a specific role to an account. However, the role does not appear to be among the
available roles. What is the likely reason for this?
A. The role has not been created.
B. The role was assigned to another tenant.
C. You do not have permission to see the role.
D. Only CA Technologies Services can perform this action.
Answer: A

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NO.2 As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three
tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to
view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently
administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles
appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all
SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they
manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a
tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data
context for summary or group dashboards.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option
to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of
detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens
if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for
specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer
retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed
manually on the Polled Metric Families page.
Answer: D

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NO.5 To help ensure that CA Performance Center operations run smoothly, which guidelines should
you follow? (Choose three)
A. Check log files daily or at least weekly.
B. Purge log files manually every two weeks to avoid performance and space issues.
C. Test the Vertica database for consistency at least once a week using DBVisualizer.
D. Only change logging levels in the log4j.xml files for a service if advised to do so by CA
Technologies support.
E. If you have access to the CA Performance Center server,run the grep-i command with the
appropriate keyword to search multiple log files for error instances.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in
CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring
profiles.
Answer: A

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NO.7 System Administrator, Cliff Warner, asks you how he can prevent the discovery of non-SNMP
enabled devices in his infrastructure. Which advice should you offer?
A. Disable ICMP on the Data Collectors.
B. Change the ICMP packet size to zero.
C. Disable ICMP discovery in the Discovery profiles.
D. Continue to permit the discovery of all devices because CA Performance Management only
monitors SNMP-based devices by default.
Answer: C

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NO.8 How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it
to an unsupported device.
Answer: B

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NO.1 J ohnston Marks, a regional bank, are looking to use S OA as a way to improve their product development
processes to support their growing business. Their primary problem is in dealing with the volume and diversity of
information required in developing a product. C urrently, usage feedback, marketing research information, and
industry intelligence is gathered through a variety of legacy systems, spreadsheets, desktop databases, letter mail,
and FAX. Which two goals are most appropriate for leveraging SOA in this process improvement exercise?
A. Reduce variance and ensure repeatability of the process
B. Eliminate some sources of information through services
C. Provide more consistent and managed interfaces to the various information sources
D. Enable the incorporation of newer and higher volume sources into the process
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
An automated business process requires human intervention only if an event occurs during its execution. What
is the term for this pattern? (S ee E xhibit for picture)
A. Fork/Join
B. Escalation
C. Delegation
D. Exception Handling
Answer: B

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NO.3 F lyHigh Airlines is planning their S OA program. An initial assessment of capability has been made, but no
other planning has begun to date. What should F lyHigh focus on next?
A. Focus on developing the initial shared services reference architecture
B. Services should be classified and categorized by their relative risk and business priority
C . A cost model should be constructed to evaluate best sequencing of services and assess the required
infrastructure investment
D. Common services such as authentication, exception handling, and logging should be constructed
Answer: A

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NO.4 Serendipity Securities, Inc. has two major business objectives:
1. E nsure consistent customer information and service capabilities across all product lines and all customer
channels (interactive voice response, call centre, and website)
2. Maintain business unit autonomy so new products and/or services can be introduced in a timely fashion.
What is the likelihood of achieving all the objectives through an SOA program?
A. Both objectives can be met; both agility and consistency are complementary.
B. It is unlikely the objectives can be met because agility and consistency are contradictory.
C . There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with product information, and some compromise
must be made between the business units
D. There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with customer information, and some
compromise must be made between the business units
Answer: D

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NO.5 C hasm, Inc., a clothing retailer, is executing on their S OA program. They have created a reference
architecture, roadmap, constructed common services such as single-sign on, have identified project priorities.
S ome members of IT management are unaware of the S OA program, while other managers are unclear as to why
they are undertaking it. One of these managers is responsible for deploying a new system in support of new
promotions. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: CF

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NO.6 Acme Builders, inc. has created an S OA roadmap, reference architecture and has exposed an initial handful of
data access and shared business services. The development team currently handles all requests for support,
diagnosis, and connectivity to these services through manual / ad hoc means. The number of consumers of
these services is growing. Which two service lifecycle phases are currently the most appropriate to their S OA
transformation program?
A. Monitor
B. Design
C. Expose
D. Build
E. Compose
F. Secure
Answer: AF

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NO.7 F elicity F inancial S ervices is a full service brokerage. Their primary business objective is to be the premier
provider of tailored services to leading edge investors in areas of fixed income securities, vanilla and exotic
derivatives, and whole loan investments. What is the primary benefit that an S OA would provide F elicity?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in information and behavior across channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: D

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NO.8 Titan C ommunications is a provider of cable TV , wireless, and wireline phone services. Its stated business
objective is to transition from a product centric to a customer centric organization. What is the primary benefit
that an SOA would provide Titan?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in behavior across customer channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: A

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NO.1 You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built-in display. You have already checked
user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect an external display to the
eMac's VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the external display. Which of
the following service modules would most likely be the cause of these symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard drive
Answer: A

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NO.2 On a MacBook Pro, Safe Sleep ensures that _____.
A. any open IP ports from services are closed before putting the machine to sleep
B. the machine is locked with a configured password after a specified amount of time
C. data stored in main memory will not be lost should the system shut down due to power loss while the
machine is asleep
D. the user is prompted to save documents in any open applications before machine is put to sleep using
the Sleep command from the Apple menu
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which TWO details are derived from entering an Apple product's serial number into the Apple Support
Web page? SELECT TWO
A. Mac OS version
B. Warranty status
C. AppleCare name
D. Installed memory
E. Number of USB ports
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which THREE of the following symptoms would most likely be resolved by performing an SMC reset
as a first step? SELECT THREE
A. Computer does not turn on
B. Cursor is unresponsive in Finder
C. Network / Internet connectivity issues
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep
Answer: ADE

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NO.5 A customers iBook G4 forgets the time and date when the main battery is completely drained and
there is no AC adapter connected for several hours. Is this behavior normal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does Apple recommend you do before replacing or installing any internal parts in an Xserve?
A. Remove all drive modules from the Xserve.
B. Remove the Xserve from its rack.
C. Press the System Identifier button.
D. Unlock all drive module bays.
Answer: B

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NO.7 According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart
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A. Disconnect and reconnect all internal cables.
B. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer's Mac. Which one of the
following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User's manual
D. Knowledge Base
Answer: D

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Exam Code: DU0-001
Exam Name: Data Center University Associate Certification
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NO.1 What does GFCI mean?
A. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter
B. General Facilities Cooling Index
C. Gaussian Filter Charge Indicator
D. Grounded Flaw Circuitry Installed
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical current moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: B

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NO.3 What describes the ratio of watts to volt-amps?
A. Frequency
B. Power factor
C. Actual power
D. Apparent power
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the purpose of grounding?
A. To protect against electric shock
B. To step down 208 V power to 120 V power
C. To maintain the voltage during neutral wire bonding
D. To provide a path for the Ground Fault Interrupt (GFI) circuit
Answer: A

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NO.5 Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B

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NO.1 In FTK, which search broadening option allows you to find grammatical variations of the word "kill" such
as "killer," "killed," and "killing"?
A.Phonic
B.Synonym
C.Stemming
D.Fuzzy Logic
Answer: C

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NO.2 When previewing a physical drive on a local machine with FTK Imager, which statement is true?
A.FTK Imager can block calls to interrupt 13h and prevent writes to suspect media.
B.FTK Imager can operate from a USB drive, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
C.FTK Imager can operate via a DOS boot disk, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
D.FTK Imager should always be used in conjunction with a hardware write protect device to prevent
writes to suspect media.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When using FTK Imager to preview a physical drive, which number is assigned to the first logical
volume of an extended partition?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three items are displayed in FTK Imager for an individual file in the Properties window? (Choose
three.)
A.flags
B.filename
C.hash set
D.timestamps
E.item number
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 Which type of evidence can be added to FTK Imager?
A.individual files
B.all checked items
C.contents of a folder
D.all currently listed items
Answer: C

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 1, The Internal Audit Activity's Role in Governance, Risk, and Control
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NO.1 All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor's opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
Answer: C

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NO.2 Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of
internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
Answer: C

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NO.3 While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.4 The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Answer: B

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NO.5 There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Answer: A

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NO.6 Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors' ability to detect
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A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine
months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual'sexpert
knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was
responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
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D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system's
implementation
Answer: D

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Exam Name: SAP Certified - Associate Business Foundation & Integration with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5
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C-TERP10-65 Real Questions Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-27

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C_TPLM30_66 (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/C_TPLM30_66.html

NO.1 What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
A. The costs details for individual technical objects
B. The costs by work center
C. The material costs by valuation category
D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
Answer: D

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NO.2 A user has planned an operation with labor costs and material costs; however, the material
cost element is not assigned to a value category.
Where do the material costs appear in the value categories for the order?
A. In the overhead value category
B. In a new, automatically created value category
C. In the unassigned value category
D. In the internal activity value category
Answer: C

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NO.3 A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter.
Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must
they perform?
A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement
reading was transferred.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A maintenance plan has a completion requirement. The plan contains five maintenance
items that produce five notifications.
Which system status must each notification have before the maintenance call is completed and the
next maintenance call can be generated?
A. REL (Released)
B. ATCO (All Tasks Completed)
C. TECO (Technically Completed)
D. NOCO (Notification Completed)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a function of deadline monitoring (transaction IP30)?
A. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for scheduled maintenance items within a
specific period.
B. Convert maintenance notifications into maintenance orders within a specific period.
C. Convert maintenance calls into call objects within a specific period.
D. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for all overdue maintenance calls.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion?(Choose two)
A. The order must have actual costs.
B. The order must be fully settled.
C. The balance of the order must be zero.
D. The order must have planned costs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which of the following always produces up-to-the-minute costing information for
maintenance orders?
A. A standard analysis from the Plant Maintenance Information System (PMIS)
B. A standard query in SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
C. A maintenance order list
D. A shift report based on shift notes
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a
maintenance order operation?
A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
B. Assignment of order type to notification type
C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
D. Create default value profiles for general order data
Answer: A

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