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Exam Code: HP0-J16
Exam Name: Introduction to HP SANs
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Last Update: 2014-06-30

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Exam Code: HP2-Z30
Exam Name: Fast Track - Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals
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Exam Code: HP0-794
Exam Name: Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions
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NO.1 What is a common method for handling multiple reporting and monitoring functions?
A. Use graphical reports to enhance interpretation.
B. Combine all information into one report for simplicity.
C. Separate low-level information reporting from higher-level analysis and decision making.
D. Use intelligent interfaces to offload reporting and decision-making from management software.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tasks are associated with controlling a target in a storage infrastructure management
environment?
A. discover, track, diagnose, and predict
B. diagnose, predict, repair, and migrate
C. configure, provision, repair, and migrate
D. report, bill, analyze, diagnose, and predict
Answer: C

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NO.3 To which category of target-based management tools does HP Systems Insight Manager belong?
A. system management
B. network management
C. storage systems management
D. operating system management
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the processing requirements of Information Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)
A. fast
B. secure
C. auditable
D. transparent
E. easy to use
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Which features are provided by Information Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)
A. measures to protect data from corruption through its life cycle
B. technologies and processes to dispose of outdated storage equipment
C. technologies and processes to organize data based on size and sensitivity
D. processes that enforce data-retention policies and make decisions about appropriate data storage
environments
E. technologies and processes that determine how to store, manage, and communicate information
according to its business value
Answer: DE

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NO.6 Which target-based management software is expected to be provided with the storage component?
A. OS management suites
B. system management suites
C. network management suites
D. device-specific management tools
Answer: D

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NO.7 Because Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) interfaces with activities and people, there is a
potential overlap between ILM and other areas. Which area is likely to overlap with ILM?
A. IT Budget Planning
B. IT Project Management
C. Business Financial Planning
D. Business Process Management
Answer: D

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NO.8 In the context of storage infrastructure management, what is the definition of the term target?
A. a goal set for errors on a device
B. an entity that needs management
C. a disk or tape connected to a SCSI bus
D. a vendor-specific management tool that connects to a device
Answer: B

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SY0-101 Exam Tests, RF0-001 Exam Prep, JK0-019 Real Exams

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Exam Code: SY0-101
Exam Name: SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION
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Exam Code: RF0-001
Exam Name: RFID+ Certification
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Exam Code: JK0-019
Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam
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NO.1 In order to secure web-based communications, SSL uses: (Select TWO).
A. PPP.
B. IPSec.
C. Public-key cryptography.
D. Blowfish encryption.
E. Symmetric cryptography.
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
Answer: CE

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NO.2 IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL
E. L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP)
Answer: BF

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NO.3 Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates
Answer:A

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NO.4 A web page becomes unresponsive whenever the embedded calendar control is used. Which of the
following types of vulnerabilities is occurring?
A. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)
B. ActiveX
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Cookies
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and
network segment to see each other's traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim
that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

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NO.7 A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers
and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these
changes?
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet.
Answer: D

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1D0-510 Exam Prep, 1D0-635 Exam Dumps

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Exam Code: 1D0-510
Exam Name: CIW v5 Founfations Exam
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Exam Code: 1D0-635
Exam Name: CIW JavaScript Specialist
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NO.1 Consider the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> var v1 = "alpha"; function f () { var v2 =
"bravo"; alert (v1 + ", " + v2); } f(); v1="charlie"; alert (v1 + ", " + v2); </script> What is the expected result
when you run this script in the browser?
A. An alert box displaying charlie, bravo
B. An alert box displaying alpha, bravo followed by an error
C. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and alpha, bravo respectively
D. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and charlie, bravo respectively, followed by an error
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid variable name in JavaScript?
A. this
B. that
C. 2that
D. 2this
Answer: B

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NO.3 Assuming the function <body onload="DisplayName()"> is called, which script block will display Hello
Joe in the document window after you enter the name Joe?
A. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName(void)
{
var YourName = window.prompt("What is your name?","Please enter your name")
;
document.write("Hello " + YourName)
;
}
</script>
B. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName()
{
var YourName = window.prompt("What is your name?","Please enter your name")
;
document.write("Hello " + YourName)
;
}
</script>
C. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName(void)
{
var YourName = document.prompt("What is your name?",Please enter your name)
;
document.write("Hello " + YourName)
;
}
</script>
D. <script type="text/javascript"
>
function DisplayName()
{
var YourName = document.prompt("What is your name?","Please enter your name")
;
document.write("Hello " + yourname)
;
}
</script>
Answer: B

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NO.4 Consider the following code fragment, which sets up the retrieval of an XML document named fish.xml
and calls a function named showFish(): var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET",
"fish.xml", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish(); xmlhttp.send();
Which line of code initializes the XMLHttpRequest object.?
A. xmlhttp.send();
B. var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest();
C. xmlhttp.open("GET", "fish.xml", true);
D. xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish();
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following demonstrate the correct syntax for the switch statement?
A. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case "Peter"
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case "Paul"
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
B. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case "Peter"
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case "Paul"
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
C. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case (Peter)
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case (Paul)
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break;
case: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
D. var myName= "Paul"
switch (myName)
{
case (Peter)
document.write("My name is Peter.<br />"
)
break
case (Paul)
document.write("My name is Paul.<br />"
)
break;
case: (default)
;
document.write("I do not have a name.<br />"
)
}
Answer: A

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1Y0-A13 PDF VCE, 1Y0-A13 Real Exams

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A13
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition
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NO.1 Which three entities could be used to configure SmartAccess? (Choose three.)
A.Traffic policy
B.Session policy
C.Session profile
D.Authorization profile
E.Pre-authentication policy
Answer:B C E

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NO.2 When creating a Web Interface XenApp Services site for use with Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise
Edition, which access method or authentication should be specified for the XenApp Services site?
A.SmartAccess Control
B.Explicit authentication
C.Advanced Access Control
D.Pass-through authentication
Answer:C

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NO.3 Scenario: A network administrator created multiple personal folder files (*.pst) on a workstation while
accessing Outlook over a VPN session. The administrator would like for the *.pst files to be deleted upon
logout from the VPN session.The administrator should configure the client cleanup to clean up _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.cookies
B.*.pst files
C.address bars
D.application data
Answer:D

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NO.4 Scenario: A group of students need access to an online examination for only one hour. The group must
be prompted periodically about the logout time during the last three minutes of their one hour session, and
the session must time out exactly after one hour. Which setting should the administrator enable when
configuring Access Gateway to provide access to these students?
A.Kill all the sessions pertaining to the students exactly after one hour
B.Specify the login and logout time so that the students' connections can time out exactly after one hour
C.Configure a session profile with a forced time out warning value of three minutes and forced time out
time of one hour
D.Configure a session profile with a session time out warning value of three minutes and session time out
time of one hour
E.Configure a session profile with a client idle time out warning value of three minutes and client idle time
out time of one hour
Answer:C

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NO.5 What is the minimum assignment of rights that users must have in order to install the Citrix Access
Gateway Plugin for Windows for the first time on a client device?
A.Power User
B.Authenticated User
C.Local Administrator
D.Domain Administrator
Answer:C

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NO.6 Scenario: A system administrator created a new virtual server, "admin.widget.com", on an Access
Gateway appliance. Only system administrators will be connecting to this virtual server. These system
administrators require a full SSL VPN tunnel when connecting. Other users connect to another virtual
server, "users.widget.com", which runs on the same Access Gateway appliance. Any user connecting
through "users.widget.com" currently connects clientlessly. Which action must the administrator take to
give the system administrators full VPN access?
A.Edit the virtual server corresponding to admin.widget.com and enable the Citrix Access Gateway Plugin
for ActiveX
B.Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to users.widget.com
C.Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to admin.widget.com
D.Create a session policy, select Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows as the "Windows PluginType"
in the profile associated with the policy and apply the policy to admin.widget.com
Answer:D

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NO.7 Scenario: An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following settings: A group named
QUARGRP A session profile named QUARPROF, with Clientless Access mode set to ON A session policy
named QUARPOL, with the expression, "NS_TRUE" and the profile QUARPROF The QUARPOL session
policy is bound to the QUARGRP group The global settings with Client Security is set to "CLIENT.APP.AV
== SYMANTEC EXISTS" and the quarantine group is set to QUARGRP Which client will be provided to a
user who logs on to the virtual server from a client device that is NOT running Symantec Antivirus?
A.Web Interface
B.Clientless Access
C.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
D.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer:B

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NO.8 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure access to published resources in a Citrix XenApp
farm through Access Gateway. The administrator will implement Access Gateway as a replacement for
the current Secure Gateway deployment, which does NOT have SmartAccess. Which three steps must
the administrator take for this scenario? (Choose three.)
A.Set ICA Proxy to ON
B.Configure split tunneling
C.Set Single Sign-on Domain
D.Configure the Secure Ticket Authority server
E.Set the Access Gateway home page to the Web Interface URL
Answer:A C D

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Exam Code: 1Y0-220
Exam Name: Citrix Metaframe XP 1.0 for Windows
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NO.1 Choose the correct statement from the options below:
A. MetaFrame XP should be installed after you have installed your applications.
B. Disable logons to a MetaFrame XP server before installing an application.
C. There are two types of application compatibility scripts.
D. When installing applications on your MetaFrame XP server, make sure that at least one remote ICA
connections is active.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When a print driver is mapped, where is the mapping placed?
A. Data store.
B. Server registry.
C. The client device.
D. %systemroot%Winnt\system32\drivers.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are NFuse features? (Choose two.)
A. Connections via IPX.
B. Cookie encryption.
C. Client side scripting.
D. Secure Socket Layer.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Under Load Evaluator, the ° m e m o r y usag ¡± rule ____ _
A. Controls memory per processor on a server.
B. Allows you to change the pool-paged bytes.
C. Sets a low and high threshold for the memory usage percentage.
D. Defines the amount of memory that can be used by load balanced applications.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Client LPT mapping is available for all clients except?
A. UNIX
B. MAC
C. DOC
D. WIN 16
Answer: B

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NO.6 Choose the correct statement:
A. If you cancel the ICA Client Distribution Wizard during the installation of MetaFrame XP, no MetaFrame
XP services will be installed and will to reinstall MetaFrame XP.
B. If you cancel the ICA Client Distribution Wizard during the Installation of MetaFrame XP, the installation
of MetaFrame XP will continue without problems.
C. You cannot cancel the ICA client distribution Wizard during the installation of MetaFrame XP.
D. The ICA client Distribution Wizard does not install the installation of MetaFrame XP.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What should be considered to determine the hardware required to run your MetaFrame XP ser ver?
(Choose three.)
A. User departments.
B. User locations.
C. Number of users.
D. Types of applications.
E. User product knowledge.
Answer: BCD

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NO.8 .What are restrictions of ICA session shadowing? (Choose two.)
A. Only one administrator can shadow a single user.
B. MetaFrame XP users cannot be shadowed from sessions on another MetaFrame XP server.
C. An administrator cannot shadow another user if that user is connected via an RDP client.
D. The window size and color depth of the ICA connection being shadowed must be less than or equal to
that of the ICA connection requesting permission to shadow.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 1Y0-731
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NO.1 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is configuring a new XenApp 6.5 farm in order to provide the Sales
department with access to a new CRM application. There are 400 users who will be accessing the
application, and the application load testing shows 512 MB of RAM utilization for each user during peak
time. XenApp will be installed on virtual machines, and the virtual machines will be hosted on XenServer
hosts.
All three of the XenServer hosts have the following hardware specifications:
1. Dual 6 core CPU

NO.2 Scenario: Nether Tech is reviewing its disaster recovery plan. Currently, users access pooled virtual
desktops, and they use office productivity applications from within their desktop sessions. Business
critical applications are hosted using XenApp Advanced Edition and are accessible from within the pooled
desktops.
The XenServer hosting infrastructure for Nether Tech's disaster recovery site has the ability to support
50% CPU and memory capacity compared to the primary datacenter in the event of a failover. All servers
in the primary datacenter are currently averaging 70-80% CPU and memory utilization.
Which delivery method would allow business critical applications to remain available to all users should a
disaster occur?
A. Pooled Desktops
B. Offline Applications
C. Assigned Desktops
D. Hosted applications
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: An engineer has been instructed to implement a new XenApp farm. The IT Manager at Nether
Tech wants idle sessions for server hosted applications to be disconnected after two hours and idle
sessions for XenApp server hosted desktops to be disconnected after eight hours. There is a separate
domain group policy which disconnects idle sessions after four hours.
The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktops are in a worker group named Apps. The XenApp
servers hosting the server hosted desktop are in a worker group named Desktops. Several Computer
policies are configured in the environment.
Click the Exhibit button to view the list of configured Computer policies.
Users are complaining that their idle sessions are disconnected after four hours.
What must the engineer do to meet the requirements stated in the environment?
A. Remove the Domain Group Policy.
B. Disable Domain Group Policy Inheritance.
C. Change the Domain Group Policy to 8 hours.
D. Change the Domain Group Policy to 2 hours.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Scenario: Nether Tech's corporate policy requires that passwords are NOT requested for XenApp
passthrough connections, except for those that pertain to members of the Nursing Users group. Nurses
connect to XenApp servers hosting applications in the Nurses Worker Group.
Click the Exhibit button to view a list of the policies configured in the environment.
An engineer needs to prioritize the three policies so that only members of the Nurses group are prompted
for passwords when they connect to their XenApp resources.
What is the correct order of prioritization for the policies from lowest to highest?
A. Unfiltered, Nurses, Corporate Users
B. Corporate Users, Nurses, Unfiltered
C. Unfiltered, Corporate Users, Nurses
D. Nurses, Unfiltered, Corporate Users
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: In order to complete the rollout of a new XenApp farm, a Citrix Engineer is required to set a
policy to allow all client printers to auto-create for the domain group called Accounting Users. Their
current unfiltered Citrix policy is configured to only auto-create the client's default printer. The engineer
must also ensure that any changes made will NOT affect other users in the farm.
All the XenApp servers are in a single worker group.
Which three actions must the engineer take to allow the Accounting Users group to receive all of their
printers? (Choose three.)
A. Increase the policy priority.
B. Decrease the policy priority.
C. Assign the policy to the Accounting User group.
D. Assign the policy to the existing XenApp Worker group.
E. Create a User policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.
F. Create a Computer policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.6 96 GB of RAM

NO.7 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is assigned to manage a datacenter environment that consists of
XenServer, Provisioning Services, XenDesktop, and XenApp. Provisioning Services is used to stream
vDisks to XenDesktop and XenApp images. The current environment consists of four physical servers
running XenServer and a single physical server running Provisioning Services Currently, there are 750
users in the environment. Extensive testing has shown that each XenServer host can support XenApp
and XenDesktop workloads for up to 200 users, and the Provisioning Services server can stream images
to 4000 virtual machines. Management has just informed the engineer that a recent acquisition is going to
add 1200 users to the environment. Management also desires that the datacenter be fully redundant so
that the loss of one physical server does NOT impact business continuity.
At minimum, the engineer will need to add __________ new XenServer hosts and __________ new
Provisioning Services servers to support the new workload and make the environment redundant.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 6, 0
B. 6, 1
C. 7, 0
D. 7, 1
E. 8, 0
F. 8, 1
Answer: D

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NO.8 300 GB SAN storage
The Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that users can access their XenApp resources in the event of a
server hardware failure.
Based on Citrix Best Practices, what would be the recommended configuration?
A. Create a pool with three hosts.
B. Create three pools with one host each.
C. Create a pool with two hosts and enable HA.
D. Create a pool with three hosts and enable HA.
Answer: D

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2.Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to set up logging to monitor a Workload Balancing related issue in a
XenServer implementation. The engineer wants to capture maximum detail about this issue before
reporting it to Citrix Technical Support.
To increase the level of detail that will be captured in the log file, the engineer should _________ and
__________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. open wlb.conf in a text editor
B. open logfile.log in a text editor
C. open auditlog.out in a text editor
D. modify the configuration options
E. enable logging for a specific trace
Answer: A, E

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3.Scenario: Nether Tech has a XenDesktop farm with Windows 7 desktops. Users are accessing their
virtual desktops from different bandwidth and latency connection types.
Which setting should the engineer configure in a Citrix User policy in order to optimize moving images?
A. Enable Adaptive Display. Disable Progressive Display.
B. Disable Adaptive Display. Disable Progressive Display.
C. Enable Adaptive Display. Enable Progressive Display with Low Compression.
D. Disable Adaptive Display. Enable Progressive Display with Low Compression.
Answer: A

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NO.1 If the Use Aggressive Mode check box in the IKE Properties dialogue box is
enabled:
A. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
B. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
C. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
D. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
E. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 3 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a method of Load Balancing with
VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. Domain Load Balancing
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Round Trip
E. Quantum Load Balancing
Answer: E

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NO.3 Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
E. Adaptive
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)?
A. Provides certificates for users and Security Administrators.
B. Generated certificates for HTTPS Web server.
C. Establishes SIC between OPSEC applications and Check Point products.
D. Authentications SecureClient traffic to Enforcement Modules for VPNs.
E. Establishes SIC between Check Point products.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.7 Which of the following encryption algorithms supports a key length from 128-bits to 256-bits and is
outlined in the new Federal Information Processing Standard publication?
A. AES (Ridndael)
B. CAST Cipher
C. 3DES
D. DES
E. Blowfish
Answer: A

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NO.8 When upgrading a configuration to NG with Application Intelligence: (Choose the
FALSE answer)
A. Upgrade the SmartConsole.
B. Upgrade each module's version in SmartDashboard manually.
C. Upgrade the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Modules.
D. Copy $FWDIR/state from one version of VPN-1/FireWall-1 to another version of
VPN-1/FireWall-1.
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter server. The version is set during the upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.1 When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the correct
answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.2 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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NO.3 When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the b/g
band as well as the a
band?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP2
B. AP-120
C. AP-105
D. AP-125
E. AP-135
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master
controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the "RFProtect license."
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. master controller since it performs the IDS analysis
B. the local controllers since the APs terminate there
C. all of the controllers
D. this isn't the correct license for this purpose
Answer: C

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NO.6 In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP.?
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 651
Answer: D

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NO.1 Given the following snippet:
<cfset x=2>
<cfoutput>
#--x# - #x++#
</cfoutput>
What is the output.?
A. 1 - 1
B. 1 - 3
C. 1 - 2
D. -1
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to convert a query column containing numeric data into a comma-delimited list.
Which function should you use?
A. ValueList()
B. ArrayToList()
C. ColumnList()
D. ListAppend()
Answer: A

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NO.3 You want to display a custom template when an exception occurs in your application.
Which tag should you use to specify the template to be displayed?
A. <cfthrow />
B. <cfcatch />
C. <cferror />
D. <cfexecute />
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given the following code stub:
<cfset obj = {key='Apple',basic=['one','two']} />
Which returns the string "two"?
A. obj.key.basic
B. obj.basic[2]
C. obj.basic[1]
D. obj.basic.2
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which code segment can be used to store an array of structures as a client variable?
A. <cfset client.myarray = "#adata#">
B. <cfset client.myarray = valuelist(adata)>
C. <cfset client.myarray = serializeJSON(adata)>
D. <cfset client.myarray = adata>
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given the following code:
<cferror type="validation" template="handler.cfm"/>
<cfform> Enter a value: <cfinput type="text" required="true" name="myinput" validateat="onServer" />
<cfinput type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" />
</cfform>
What happens when the form is submitted and validation rules are broken?
A. The file handler.cfm page is displayed.
B. The ColdFusion default validation error handler page is displayed.
C. The form page is displayed.
D. A runtime error occurs.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given the follow code snippet:
<cfset startTime = CreateDateTime(2009,1,1,0,0,0)>
<cfset endTime = CreateDateTime(2009,1,3,12,0,0)>
<cfset i = 2>
<cfloop from="#startTime#" to="#endTime#" index="i" step="#CreateTimeSpan(1,0,0,0)#">
Hello World! <br />
</cfloop>
How many times does the loop iterate?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the value of the variable b when the following code block executes?
<cfscript> a = 0; b = 1; a = (a)?b:a; if (a) { b = "apple"; }{ b = "pear"; } </cfscript>
A. 1
B. 0
C. apple
D. pear
Answer: D

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NO.1 You write code that changes a value in the application scope. You are using the tag to prevent race
conditions and do not want to lock the entire application scope. What should you do?
A.Use the name attribute.
B.Use the type attribute.
C.Use the timeout attribute.
D.Use the output attribute.
Answer:A

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NO.2 You are using a file structure as shown in the Exhibit.
A.The ACF-DB folder.
B.The oneInch folder.
C.The root of the hard drive.
D.The screws folder.
Answer:C

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NO.3 You want to use session variables in an application. You have a single Application.cfm file that you use
in the application. You have enabled session management in the ColdFusion Administrator. What should
you do to enable session variables within your application?
A.Use the tag with sessionManagement=true.
B.Use the tag with the This scope.
C.Use the tag with the Session scope.
D.Use the tag in the onApplicationStart() method.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which statement about the following code is true? 1) 2) 3) 4)c = 10 5) 6)d=15 7)
A.The left and right sides of the OR are evaluated and both must be true in order for variable c to be
assigned.
B.Variable c will be assigned with a value of 10.
C.Variable d will be assigned with a value of 15.
D.An error will occur.
Answer:D

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NO.5 You use the tag to display the results of the cache for a particular page. You find the results are not
stored regularly. Which attribute should you use with the tag to control how long the results are stored?
A.Add the timeout attribute.
B.Add the action attribute.
C.Add the expireurl attribute.
D.Add the timespan attribute.
Answer:D

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NO.6 What should you do in the following code to create a loop that outputs only even numbers between 2
and 100? 1)Number: #i# 3)
A.Add a step attribute of 2 in the opening tag.
B.Add a conditional statement.
C.Replace the i in the index attribute with i + 2.
D.Use the Query loop with the tag.
Answer:A

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NO.7 You are using four scopes within a pageRL, Variables, Form, and CGI. Which of these four scopes is
checked first by ColdFusion?
A.URL
B.Variables
C.Form
D.CGI
Answer:B

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NO.8 You have a ColdFusion Component with a function that returns the total number of arguments passed
into this function. You want to expose this function as a Web service. Which tags and attributes should
you use?
A.The tag with the invokeargument attribute.
B.The tag with the name and component attributes.
C.The tag with the component and method attributes.
D.The tag with the returntype and access attributes.
Answer:D

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NO.1 You want to create an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Excel workbook. The workbook has
several worksheets and chart sheets. Which command should you choose in Excel to create a
single PDF document that contains all of the worksheets and chart sheets?
A. File > Properties
B. File > Page Setup
C. Adobe PDF > Convert to Adobe PDF
D. Adobe PDF > Convert Entire Workbook
E. Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a PowerPoint presentation. Which functionality in
the PowerPoint presentation is automatically included in the PDF document?
A. macros
B. text outlines
C. slide timings
D. action buttons
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which product can be used to allow business users to create and save Adobe PDF documents
containing interactive forms?
A. Adobe Illustrator
B. Adobe Acrobat Elements
C. Adobe Acrobat 6.0 Standard
D. Adobe Acrobat 6.0 Professional
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which form field type supports a date format?
A. button
B. list box
C. text field
D. combo box
Answer: C

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NO.5 When assigning an action to a form field, what triggers an On Mouse-up action?
A. tabbing out of the field
B. rolling on top of the field
C. clicking the mouse button in the field
D. clicking the mouse button and letting go in the field
Answer: D

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NO.6 From which two applications can Adobe PDF documents be created and maintain layers?
(Choose two.)
A. CorelDRAW!
B. Microsoft Visio
C. AdobeInDesign
D. Autodesk AutoCAD
E. QuarkXPress 5.0 and above
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which application supports one-button creation of Adobe PDF documents?
A. Microsoft Access
B. Netscape Navigator
C. Corel Word Perfect
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command should you use to zoom to see all edges of an Adobe PDF document?
A. View > Fit Width
B. View > Fit Page
C. View > Fit Visible
D. View > Actual Size
Answer: B

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NO.1 .A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional
provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female
client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C

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NO.5 .Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will vary
widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special consideration should be given to
older adults when giving a fitness test, because
A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
Answer: A

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NO.6 .A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of
the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours
before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the
assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury
to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient
safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything
possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C

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NO.8 .A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Answer: B

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