2014年8月31日星期日

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Exam Code: C2150-561
Exam Name: IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2180-277
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NO.1 Which area of the IBM Protocol Analysis Module technology prevents Skype from
using enterprise
network bandwidth?
A. Data Security
B. Application Control
C. Threat Detection and Prevention
D. Client-side Application Protection
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer wants to change the severity of an IBM Protocol Analysis Module signature
from high to low
in a given protection domain. Which policy meets this requirement?
A. Security Events
B. Open Signatures
C. System Updates
D. X-Force Virtual Patch
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where in the IBM Security SiteProtector System Console can a customer find the link
status of the
Security Interfaces on an IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. the networkinfo section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
B. the Intrusion Prevention section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
C. the Security Interfaces section on the Health Summary Network tab in the appliance
Properties screen
D. the Internal Communication section on the Health Summary System tab in the appliance
Properties
screen
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which file can be imported or compiled, and defines the format of SNMP traps for
security events
responses in the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. iss.mib
B. ibm.mib
C. linux.mib
D. snmp.mib
Answer: A

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NO.5 Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) exclusions have been added to a Protection
Domain, however
events from those VLANs seem to be generated anyway. What is the most likely cause?
A. A VLAN cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
B. Multiple VLANs cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
C. Incorrect interfaces have been specified in a custom Protection Domain.
D. The same exception has not been created on the Global Protection Domain.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which interface mode is required in order for quarantine response rules to work?
A. Bypass Mode
B. Inline Protection Mode
C. Inline Simulation Mode
D. Passive Monitoring Mode
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which file is accessed on the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3
appliance to
determine why it is Active with Errors in IBM Security SiteProtector System?
A. Boot log file
B. Kernel log file
C. Engine0 log file
D. Messages log file
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two restrictions placed on remote users using IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention
System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot reboot the appliance.
B. They cannot log in to the local console.
C. They cannot change the local user account passwords.
D. They cannot save changes to policies in the Web interface.
E. They cannot log in to the appliance when the authentication server is down.
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: C2090-304
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Exam Code: C2180-276
Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development
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NO.1 In order to accomplish Word Investigation in a single QualityStage job, how many investigate
stages would be required for the following fields:
PREFIX, FIRST_NAME, LAST_NAME. SUFFIX. ADDRESSJI. ADDRESS_2, ADDRESS_3, CITY , STATE.
andZIPCODE?
A. Ten.
B. Five.
C. Three.
D. Seven.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two elements are part of a lookup table in Standardization Rules Designer?
A. Input Value
B. Returned Value
C. Exception Value
D. Unhandled Token
E. Classification Token
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Once changes are introduced in a Rules Set, which option confirms the new rules set works
properly with your data?
A. Run the Rules Tester.
B. Have users check manually.
C. Check the Unhandled tokens.
D. Run the job again and confirm results.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Customer data is being processed in a single file. Among the fields present for matching are
national identity number and birth date, both of which are inconsistently populated.
Which match type should be used to match this data?
A. One-source Ranged
B. One-source Cognitive
C. One-source Transitive
D. One-source Dependent
Answer: A

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NO.5 What two rule groups are needed for rule sets?
A. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to split a domain.
B. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records after all other actions.
C. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records before all other actions.
D. A rule group for rules that you want to apply to records as they read a lookup table.
E. A rule group for rules that you want to apply copies of records before all other actions.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What will improve classifications if there are a large amount of "@" and "?" symbols in a
standardization pattern report?
A. Word with Advanced options.
B. Word with special symbol processing options.
C. Character Discrete on all unhandled patterns.
D. Character Concatenate on selected columns.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What rule file parses data to the output file?
A. PAT
B. CLS
C. DCT
D. PRS
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement describe the benefits of parsing data?
A. Optimized database loading.
B. Application of phonetic codings.
C. Access to individual data tokens.
D. Pre-processing of country specific data.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A4040-124
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2
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NO.1 A prospective customer is considering a Power Systems solution with IBM i and PowerVM.
Other possible solutions being proposed to this customer are:
- x86 with Linux, Oracle, and VMware
- x86 with Windows, SQL Server, and VMware
How does the acquisition cost and TOO of the Power Systems solution compare with the x86
solutions?
A. With POWER7, the acquisition cost is lower than for both Windows and Linux offerings resulting
in a lower 3-year TOO.
B. Acquisition costs are similarfor all solutions, butthe software maintenance costs for database and
VMware raise the 3 yearTOO of the x86 solutions
C. Acquisition costs are slightly higherforthe Power Systems solution, but the significantly reduced
operational costs result in a lower TOO over 3 years.
D. The acquisition and 3 year operational costs are lower than the Windows solution, and the
Oracle maintenance fees result in a higher 3 year TOO compared to Power.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What disaster recovery benefit is provided to a customer running IBM i applications when they
are using PowerHA Asynchronous Geographic Mirroring?
A. All objects are automatically replicated from an independent auxiliary storage pool to another
IBM i storage pool
B. It can be used to provide disaster recovery services to multiple company locations whether using
internal disk or SAN storage.
C. It offers a cloud-based suite of remote mirroring software that enables integrated, automated
failover for IBM i and attached x86 servers
D. Instead of IBM i server replication it delivers peer-to-peer remote copy services to any remotely
attached IBM SAN storage supported by IBM 7.1
Answer: B

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NO.3 What capabilityof single level storage increases system administrator productivity?
A. Multiple storage pools
B. Automatic data placement
C. Flexible storage attachment
D. HMC-based storage allocation
Answer: B

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NO.4 A 010 isconcerned about systems securityand transmission of confidential data across the
internet. What capabilities of the IBM i platform can the sales executive highlight in this situation?
A. PowerS0 software is optimized to provide security and compliance for POWER operating systems.
B. Security Access Manager combines user access management, web application protection and
encryption.
C. IBM i can send secure data across untrusted networks using SSL, IBM i Access for Windows, and
VPN connections.
D. RealSecure Server Sensor provides data loss prevention and preemptive protection while
enforcing server security policies.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An executive has expressed frustration about the inflexibilityof reports from their IBM i system
and is looking for a solution that supports more dynamic and flexible reports.
How will DB2 Web Query support thecustomer'sneed?
A. Web Query provides collaborative tools to rapidly analyze data, business requirements and
budgets.
B. Web Query supports predictive analysis and reports rising trends so that smarter decisions can be
made.
C. Web Query provides reporting, dashboards and ad hoc query capability through simple-to-use
user interlaces.
D. Web Query combines business intelligence data, system performance, management reports and
analysis in a controlled, secure, auditable environment.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A POWERS 520 customer is running IBM i 54 and is moving to a POWER7 server. Which of the
following is a valid migration plan?
A. MigratelBMi5.4tothePOWER7
B. Host IBM i 54 in a client LPAR on the POWER7
C. Upgrade from IBM i 5.4 to IBM i 7.1 after migrating to POWER7
D. Upgrade to IBM i 7.1 on the Power 520, then migrate to POWER7
Answer: D

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NO.7 An IT Director needs a relational database but cannot hire a Database Administrator (DBA) to
maintain it. How does IBM i address this challenge?
A. Systems Director Navigator for i handles DB2 database administration automatically.
B. Single Level Storage architecture and automated DB2 features mean that a DBA is not required.
C. System i Navigator manages Single Level Storage so that database administration does not require
a DBA.
D. Systems Director for i manages Single Level Storage so that database administration is easy
without a DBA.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer says that they cannot use IBM i for their chosen ERP solution as some of the
application software is in Java and a Java development environment is also required.
How can this objection be addressed?
A. IBM i 7.1 on POWER7+ now supports Java running natively using DB2 for i
B. Java Virtual Machine is provided in WebSphere Application Server and runs natively on IBM i.
C. IBM i runs Javascript in a Java Virtual Machine allowing applications to run and a development
environment to be created.
D. Rational Development Studio for i has a set of Java compilers for development and a Java runtime
environment (JRE) for running applications.
Answer: B

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B. Up to 70%
C. Up to 90%
D. Up to 20%
Answer: A

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A. A refilled HP cartridge produced by HP in China
B. A refilled cartridge that comes in fake HP packaging to mislead customers to think it is genuine
C. Any HP cartridge that misleads customers because it is not sold according to the HP list price
D. A remanufactured cartridge that comes from an unauthorized distributor
Answer: B

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NO.3 Approximately what percent of the HP printers imaging system is contained in the HP laserJet
All-in-One print cartridge?
A. 70%
B. 50%
C. 90%
D. 30%
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why should you use genuine HP supplies if you have an HP printer?
A. For access to HP e-Print
B. For reliable, trouble-free printing
C. For native driver support
D. For faster print speeds
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is ColorLok?
A. A technology and an open paper standard
B. An office printer standard
C. A chemical process that protects colors and takes place in the fuser
D. An HP-owned technology that delivers outstanding photo quality
Answer: D

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Reference: http://www.hp.com/sbso/product/supplies/paper_colorlok.html

NO.6 What is the name of the HP print cartridge return and recycle program?
A. HP Environmental Care Pack
B. HP Go Recycle
C. HP Earth Care
D. HP Planet Partner
Answer: D

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Reference: https://h30248.www3.hp.com/recycle/ereturns/welcomehpe.asp?__cc=gb&__la=en

NO.7 In which circumstance is it appropriate to use HP LaserJet C cartridges?
A. Whenever possible as they are designed to replace all
A. X and M cartridges
B. For old printers where the cost per page is too low
C. For new printers with limited availability of the X or DX
D. In Win Back and CLPPU deals
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the security label in HP Inkjet cartridges?
A. The security label has to be on the ink cartridge itself, not on the packaging.
B. All Inkjet cartridges have a security label on the back of the packaging.
C. Depending on the region, not all Inkjet cartridges have a security label.
D. Only value cartridges and photo packs have a security label.
Answer: B

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NO.1 docId%253Demr_na-c030467044%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet.be
gCacheTok=com.vignett
e.cachetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken(4thbulleted point)
3. Which configuration option is required to enable Send to Home Directory?
A. Enable sent to email SMTP authentication
B. Enable front panel user authentication
C. Administrator password EWS authentication
D. SNMPv3 key authentication
Answer: B

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vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.prp_ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01=wsrpnavigationalSta
te%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c027201942%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet
.tpst=ba847bafb2a2d782fc
bb0710b053ce01&sp4ts.oid=415204&ac.admitted=1385618012286.876444892.49288315

NO.2 What is Windows authentication?
A. A proprietary port on HP Jetdirect cards
B. A programming language for web development
C. A printer control language
D. A way of identifying a user before access is granted
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where is the Quick Setup Wizard located?
A. In the HP Address Book Manager
B. In the user PC device manager
C. In the HP MFP Embedded Web Server
D. In the HP OXP deployment tool
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is one way to improve MFP email security?
A. Require the MFP user to type something in the subject field.
B. Encrypt it using SMTP SSL protocol
C. Configure the MFP file system password
D. Configure the MFP Admin password
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is one reason that HP flow MFPs can scan up to twice as fast as other models?
A. They have single-pass dual-head scanners.
B. The paper handling engine turns twice as fast.
C. The document scanner uses page wide array technology.
D. Itincludes ultrasonic pick detection
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which field is required before you can configure the HP DSS Save to Network Folder OCR
option?
A. SNMP OID location
B. SMTP location
C. Destination folder location
D. LDAP attribute location
Answer: D

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EX0-003 Exam PDF, P3OF Actual Test, MOPF Braindumps

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NO.1 Which is delivered by the Blueprint's information flows?
A. P3O implementation plan
B. Management of risk
C. Principle of management by exception
D. Realization of benefits
Answer: C

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NO.2 What technique provides the benefit of checking the quality of the decision-support
information being provided to the P3O?
A. Gated reviews
B. Business process svvimlanes
C. Capacity planning for resource management
D. Management dashboards
Answer: A

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NO.3 P3O model?
A. Risk management
B. Programme planning
C. Secretariat support
D. Strategic planning or portfolio support
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following describe the relationship between change and business as usual?
1.Programmes deliver change into an organization's business operations environment
2.Business stakeholders must be engaged appropriately about the changes being delivered
3.Programme delivery should take priority over business as usual activities
4.Disruption to business as usual needs to be considered when planning changes
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which is a likely source of a threat to achieving the Blueprint?
A. Programme team fails to use a common language
B. Stakeholders are identified and analysed
C. Programme approach is used to implement a P3O
D. External consultants advise the programme team
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which should be documented in a Blueprint?
A. Benefit Profiles for individual benefits to be delivered by the P3O
B. Transition plans for the implementation of business change into business as usual
C. Need for Business Cases for mission-critical programmes to be reported to the Portfolio Board
D. Actual Highlight Reports issued by individual projects
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is used to assist senior managers to determine their core problems and the services to
be delivered by a P3O model?
A. Business process swimlanes
B. Knowledge management tools
C. Capacity planning for resource management
D. P3O Value Matrix
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which functional area considers risk against the ability to achieve planned outcomes for a
specific business change?
A. Strategic planning/portfolio support
B. Delivery support
C. Project
D. COE
Answer: B

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2014年8月29日星期五

C4040-224 Exam Questions, C2010-040 Test Questions, A2040-408 Bootcamp

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NO.1 Mary wants to debug the uncompressed version of the xspClientDojo.js. Which action can she
perform in order to do this?
A. Set the "Use Dojo layer libraries" option in the XSP Properties editor.
B. Set the "Use runtime optimized JavaScript and Dojo" option in the XSP Properties editor.
C. Set the "Use uncompressed resource files (CSS & Dojo)" option in the XSP Properties editor.
D. Uncompress the xspClientDojo.js file manually and upload it to IBM Domino Desginer via a JS
Library.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Hannah would like to exclude an application's image files from synchronizing with the Version
Control Management system. How can she configure this?
A. Hannah needs to list the filenames in the .svnignore file.
B. Select the files, right-click and select Do not synchronize.
C. Choose Preferences > Team > Ignore Resources > Add pattern.
D. Choose Preferences > Domino Designer > Source Control > Exclusion List.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two ways Olly can identify which of his applications are not assigned to a working set?
(Choose two.)
A. Open Bookmarks.nsf and look in the Working Sets\None view.
B. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select All.
C. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select None.
D. In Quick Links tab of the home page, click on the "Applications Not in Working Set" option.
E. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select "Applications Not in Working
Set".
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Samantha would like to use the Search functionality provided in the Application Layout control.
What does she need to do to configure search on the Application Layout control in the Properties
view?
A. Samantha needs to click on the Place Bar tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displaying results.
B. Samantha needs to click on the All Properties tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displayingresults.
C. Samantha needs to select the Title Bar tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
D. Samantha needs to click on the Search tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When using the Pager Save State Control, which property is used to define which control the
pager applies to?
A. for
B. target
C. binding
D. refreshId
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which option will provide a formatted table with two columns, three rows, a title,
description, and footer area?
A. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><td><tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td> <td> <tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td>
</table>
B. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><tr><td></td><td></td></tr><tr> <td></td><td></td></tr><tr>
<td></td><td></td></tr></table>.
C. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drop a formlayout row onto the table. Drop two layout column
controls onto the row. Repeat twice for the additional rows.
D. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drag a formlayout column onto the table. Drop three form layout
row controls onto the column. Repeat for the second column.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Ellie wants to add an icon as the first column on her Data View. How can she achieve this?
A. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the details facet.
B. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the iconColumn property.
C. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the extraColumns property.
D. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the summaryColumn property.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Richard wants to allow his users to select names from either of two views using the Name
Picker control. How can he do this?
A. Richard can use a single Name Picker with two dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders.
B. Richard will need to add two Name Pickers, each using a dominoViewNamePicker dataProvider.
C. Richard will need to use a beanNamePicker dataProvider to merge the contents of the two views
for a single Name Picker.
D. Richard can use a single Name Picker with a namePickerAggregator dataProvider. He can add two
dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders tothe namePickerAggregator.
Answer: D

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C2010-651 Real Exams, P2090-079 Practice Exam, M2040-671 Exam Tests

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Exam Code: P2090-079
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Exam Code: M2040-671
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino Sales Mastery Test v3
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NO.1 Which of the following common phrases that you should be prepared to address are NOT
likely to be heard when calling on existing Notes and Domino customers?
A. I'd like to pay more for software licenses, please.
B. Didn't IBM just kill Lotus?
C. I have an old version of Notes and it's working fine.
D. Notes is too expensive and I don't see the value of it.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Embedded experiences is best defined in the Notes client as:
A. A The capability to attach large files to your emails
B. The ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
C. The ability to deploy the Notes client via a hybrid configuration
D. The ability to view content, as well as respond socially, all in the context of your inbox
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one of the following features is NOT new in IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition?
A. A Click on URLs in edit mode
B. Paste As Plain Text
C. New shortcut keys like Ctrl+Shift+R for "Reply to All"
D. Ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
Answer: C

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/au/pdf/CCTY_2013_Whats_New_in_IBM_Domino_
Notes_and_iNotes_9_Social_Edition.pdf

NO.4 When speaking of the current state of IBM Notes and Domino momentum, which of the
following statement is NOT true?
A. IBM Notes and Domino still maintains a large percentage of email market share
B. Notes is dead
C. IBM Notes and Domino have delivered new features each and every year since 2007
D. IBM Notes and Domino have over 50,000 customers
Answer: A

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NO.5 A Processor Value Unit is linked to:
A. How much capacity a server can handle due to the number of its processor cores
B. How much capacity a server can handle due to the amount of RAM the server has installed
C. The value of a server due to the operating system cost
D. The value of a server due to the net price of the server hardware
Answer: A

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NO.6 With regards to Notes and Domino licensing, the term CAL refers to:
A. Code Application Language
B. Core Activity Linkage
C. Client Access License
D. Client Anchor Logic
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which one of the following best describes hybrid deployment for our software customers?
A. Software deployed both as an on premise solution as well as in the cloud
B. Utilizing highly energy efficient servers to save customers' electricity costs
C. Being able to run on a wide variety of operating systems
D. Backwards compatible databases that run on past versions of our software releases
Answer: A

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NO.8 An active license of Notes and Domino provides instant messaging and presence awareness via
IBM Sametime. Which of the following is NOT a known benefit of this powerful capability?
A. Faster decision-making by getting the answer instantly from a colleague via chat
B. Increased costs from deploying high network bandwidth chat capability
C. Improved customer engagement by improved responsiveness
D. Reduced travel costs from online e-meetings instead of face-to-face meetings
Answer: B

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NO.1 In DataStage, which client can be used to set environment variables at project level?
A. DataStage Designer
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. Information Server Web Console
Answer: B

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NO.2 Using a Job Sequence, which of the following tasks CANNOT be performed?
A. Define specific user variables and make them available within a Job Sequence
B. Drop a database table using a script, then start two different parallel jobs in sequence when a file
appears in a specific directory
C. Run two different parallel jobs in sequence and use job parameters to pass different
$APT_CONFIG _FILE values for each of them
D. Create multiple Exception Handlers stages to handle different types of failures
Answer: D

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NO.3 For the Information Server Repository, which Relational Database Management System (RDMS)
CANNOT be used?
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Informix
C. DB2 UDB
D. Oracle
Answer: B

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NO.4 In a Job Sequence, what is the purpose for the use of Checkpoints?
A. Monitor performance and failure for each stage
B. Automatically restart a job
C. Record the log information for each trigger
D. Restart a job from the latest Checkpoint in case of job failures
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement about Metadata Workbench is incorrect?
A. It can extend data lineage to display data integration flows that are outside of Information Server
B. It relies on the repository functions in DataStage Designer for impact analysis
C. It displays data lineage reports
D. It allows Metadata Workbench administrators to associate data stewards with data objects
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where are Table Definitions stored?
A. Information Server metadata repository
B. In the file system as a binary file
C. In the file system as a csv file
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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A. Inner join
B. Left outer join
C. Right outer join
D. Full outer join
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is a valid Write Table action in the Connector Stages?
A. Append
B. Replace
C. Truncate
D. All of the above
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NO.1 Which GUI JVM settings in the collation.properties file would be most appropriate for a large
(2500-5000 SEs) IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 environment?
A. Default values are enough
B. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=512g
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=1024g
C. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=128m
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=512m
D. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=512m
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=1024m
Answer: D

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NO.2 An IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 administrator needs to
gather
credentials for the sensors that will be running. What is the primary command that is used on
UNIX systems sensors?
A. isof
B. sudo
C. prtconf
D. syscommand
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is an Isof requirement for an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
V7.2.1.3 administrator to use the Level 2 discovery sensors on an AIX system?
A. Isof must be run using sudo
B. Isof is not used for discovery
C. The service account must be root
D. The service account user must have a UID in the 1 - 9 range
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which file is used to edit the logging properties?
A. edm.properties
B. bulkload.properties
C. collation.properties
D. database.properties
Answer: C

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NO.5 The IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 (TADDM) administrator
would like to display location tagging in Business Intelligence Reporting Tool (BIRT) based
reports. What must the TADDM administrator do to add location tagging information in BIRT
reports?
A. Modify com.collation.anchor.tag in collation.properties.
B. Modify the existing BIRT reports to add location tag information.
C. Just run the reports; location tagging is already enabled in the BIRT reports.
D. Turn on the location tagging feature when the BIRT report is run using the radio button.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which environment variable is used to specify the location of the application descriptor file?
A. DESC_FILE_LOC
B. COLLATION_HOME
C. APP_DESC_FILE_DIR
D. COLL_APP_DESC_DIR
Answer: D

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NO.7 IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 has just been installed on a
Linux
system. Which step should the administrator do right after installation?
A. Check that firewalls have the proper ports defined
B. Ensure that SSL is turned off on the client systems
C. Verity that the Apache server is running with the appropriate settings
D. Run the command $C0LLATI0N HOME/bin/control status and check for errors
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which tool creates the users when a file-based registry is used?
A. The LDAP Console
B. The User Admin Portal
C. The Data Management Portal
D. The Discovery Management Portal
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which utility provides backup, restore, and extract capabilities for Security Access Manager
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A. pdinfo
B. pdbackup
C. pdservice
D. pd_backup
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have a default setup of ISAM, ITDS and a Microsoft SharePoint backend. A Web
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switched on using the following commands:
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 2 file path=/tmp/trace.log
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 0
During analysis of the trace.log various common occurrences appear, the following trace.log extract
displays only the lines important for this question.
2013-05-26-22:08:01.681+02:00I ----------------- Browser ===> PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:01.684+02:00I ----------------- Browser <=== PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:09.283+02:00I ----------------- Browser ===> PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:16.682+02:00I ----------------- PD ===> BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:17.049+02:00I ----------------- PD <=== BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:17.051+02:00I ----------------- Browser <=== PD ----------------
What can be concluded by analyzing this trace excerpt?
You indicate you wish to make this a sample question, remove the reference here.
A. This excerpt indicates no performance or other issues.
B. This excerpt indicates that ITDS has a performance issue.
C. This excerpt indicates that the user has given a wrong password.
D. This excerpt indicates that the backend has a performance issue
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which configuration enables the day time error page?
A. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-tod = yes
B. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-dot = yes
C. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-tod = yes
D. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-dot = yes
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the correct archive file If pdbackup -a backup -list C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy
Director\etc\pdbackup.lst is executed using ISAM on a Windows Server?
A. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11.30.dar
B. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11.30.dar
C. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11_30.dar
D. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11_30.dar
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is FALSE regarding local response redirection?
A. We need to use External authentication interface to implement local response redirection.
B. When local response redirection is enabled, change password must be handled by WebSEAL.
C. When using local response redirection, WebSEAL no longer has the responsibility of generating
responses to client requests.
D. When local response redirection is enabled, the redirection is used for all local WebSEAL
response types: login, error, informational, and password management.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which registry is NOT supported by ISAM 7?
A. Lotus?Domino?Lotus?Domino
B. IBM?Tivoli?Directory Server
C. Microsoft Active Directory 2008
D. Sun Java?System Directory Server 7
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have a default setup of ISAM, ITDS and a Microsoft SharePoint backend. A Web
environment is experiencing performance issues. In order conduct analysis, tracing is temporarily
switched on using the following commands:
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 2 file path=/tmp/trace.log
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 0
During analysis of the trace.log various common occurrences appear, the following trace.log extract
displays only the lines important for this question.
2013-05-26-22:08:01.681+02:00I ----------------- Browser ===> PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:01.682+02:00I ----------------- PD ===> BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:07.216+02:00I ----------------- PD <=== BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:07.217+02:00I ----------------- Browser <=== PD ----------------
What can be concluded by analyzing this trace excerpt?
A. This excerpt indicates no performance or other issues.
B. This excerpt indicates that ITDS has a performance issue.
C. This excerpt indicates that the user has given a wrong password.
D. This excerpt indicates that the backend has a performance issue.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When performing an upgrade, which utility is used to back up the information in Tivoli
Directory Server?
A. ldapadd
B. bulkload
C. idsdb2ldif
D. idscreateldif
Answer: C

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