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2014年6月8日星期日

E22-192 Real Dumps, E20-018 Test Answers, E20-326 VCE Dumps

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Exam Code: E22-192
Exam Name: Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam
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Last Update: 2014-06-08

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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist
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E20-018 Training online Total Q&A: 290 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-06-08

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Exam Code: E20-326
Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Design Exam
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E20-326 Exam Dumps Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-06-08

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NO.1 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

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NO.2 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.3 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the AIX Servers, to
list the software modules installed?
A. pkginfo
B. lslpp
C. swlist
D. cfgmgr
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is interested in utilizing TimeFinder/Snap to generate a backup copy of an application
every six hours. In order for you to calculate the SAVE Pool requirements you will need to run Change
Tracker. To which value should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 10800
C. 86400
D. 32400
Answer: A

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NO.5 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a four hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every four hours
B. SUM report over four hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are proposing a new VMAX array with FAST VP. The customer reports their application needs a
small amount of EFD capacity and asks whether 200 GB EFDs or 400 GB EFDs would provide better
overall performance. Which drive size do you recommend and why?
A. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 200 GB EFDs.
B. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 400 GB EFDs.
C. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 200 GB EFDs.
D. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 400 GB EFDs.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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2014年5月13日星期二

E20-018 Test Questions, E20-670 Real Questions, E22-275 Real Dumps

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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist
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Exam Code: E20-670
Exam Name: Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst
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Last Update: 2014-05-13

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Exam Code: E22-275
Exam Name: recoverpoint backup and recovery specialist exam
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E22-275 Test Questions Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-13

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NO.1 Which generation of RecoverPoint Appliance hardware must be used to ensure you can use a CRR
over FC configuration?
A. Gen2 and 3 only
B. Gen2 and 4 only
C. Gen2, 3, and 4
D. Gen3 and 4 only
Answer: D

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NO.2 In a cascaded RecoverPoint configuration, a customer experiences a site failure at the secondary site.
What impact does this have on replication?
A.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails
B.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication continues
C.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
D.Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is planning to deploy a 2-node RecoverPoint cluster at each data center. They will make use
of dual stack for its LAN network connection.
How many IP addresses should the customer plan for per site, including management IP addresses.?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which device allows the installation of a Brocade splitter into a DCX director?
A. PB-48k-18i
B. PB-48k-AP
C. PB-DCX-32P-E
D. PB-DCX-48P-8G
Answer: B

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
You are troubleshooting a RecoverPoint issue where consistency groups, using a kdriver splitter, have
stopped working. While analyzing the problem, you ran detect Fibre Channel targets from the SAN
Diagnostics menu. What does this output tell you that relates to the problem in the environment?
A. RPA is not zoned to any hosts
B. All RPA HBA ports are being used as targets
C. Even and odd ports should not see the same targets
D. Ports 0 and 3 should not be connected to the same fabric
Answer: A

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NO.6 You want to upgrade a RecoverPoint environment using Deployment Manager (DM). As a prerequisite
to continuing with the upgrade, which TCP port needs to be open between the management station where
the DM is installed and the RPA management IP addresses?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 80
D. 161
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have finished deploying SANTap in a RecoverPoint CRR environment. At Site 2 everything looks
fine. However, at Site 1 you see the following message on the RecoverPoint Management Application:
WARNING: RPA cannot access discovery AVT: 7001248288220000 ; Site1 ; RPA1 in Site1 ; Cisco -
CVT22-2109000dec3c3182
You have checked that back-end and front-end VSANs are properly configured with the correct members
in each. Which action can you take to perform a full discovery of ITLs and recreation of AVTs to fix this
issue?
A. SSH as 'admin' and run the refresh_santap_view command
B. Refresh the splitters on the RecoverPoint Management Application
C. Rescan the SAN on the RecoverPoint Management Application
D. SSH as 'admin' and run the get_santap_view command
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are implementing a RecoverPoint CRR solution. The RPAs that were delivered do not have the
correct version of RecoverPoint.
What is the EMC-preferred way to load the correct software version to the RPAs?
A. Before launching Deployment Manager
B. During the Deployment Manager installation process
C. After completing the installation but before the license is installed
D. After the installation is complete
Answer: A

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2013年9月27日星期五

Free download EMC certification E20-018 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: EMC (Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist)
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NO.1 When using logging to maintain server security, which is the key element for intrusion detection and
should be contained the server logs?
A. Vulnerability scan that identifies susceptible services that are active on the server.
B. Results of penetration testing through uncover problem probable weaknesses.
C. An entry for each application transaction with details of the organization.
D. Alerts to suspicious activities that require further investigation.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your client is considering a virtualized data center (VDC) as an investment in process improvement.
A VDC can improve the delivery of which business process?
A. Auditing
B. Business continuity / disaster recovery
C. Compliance
D. Capacity planning / management
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a key VDC and cloud planning consideration for IT governance?
A. Change management
B. Regulations
C. Separation of duties
D. Creating trust zones
Answer: B

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NO.4 A development organization uses a PaaS service from a public cloud to develop and test an application.
Once sending and verification are complete, the development team discovers that the cloud services
uses proprietary software in the PaaS clustering mailing and deployment of the application within their
production data center imposition without significant application records.
What this type of lock-in called?
A. Geographical lock-in
B. Technology lock-in
C. Cloud lock-in
D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.5 When applying compliance principles to your company s VDC and cloud architectures, how should you
approach your information life cycle management strategy?
A. Data of reset
B. Archival and offsite storage
C. Production and backup
D. Inception to completion
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has asked you to develop a framework for assuming that the cloud Part of this will resume
an assessment development.
Where should you lock first for assessment criteria and technologies?
A. International standards
B. Internal IT development
C. Company metadata
D. Industry best practices
Answer: D

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NO.7 A large company with multiple heterogeneous arrays would like to take advantage of the performance
simplified management benefits of storage virtualization. They have a data center transformation pain that
includes producing power and cooling at a high priority.
Which storage virtualization method would meet their requirements?
A. Network-based storage tiering
B. Vertical storage tiering
C. Server-based storage tiering
D. Horizontal storage tiering
Answer: B

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NO.8 What would you identify as a business application in applying IT as a Service to IT processions?
A. Defined workflow request processes
B. Funded as a cost center
C. Virtual data center best practices
D. SLA-driven management
Answer: A

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NO.9 A midsize company has deployed centralized storage and is currently planning to virtualize their servers.
They have considered their application into Tiers, with Tier 1 application requiring the same service and
performance levels of the current servers.
They have purchased new, high capacity servers for the virtualized environment and are planning to
consolidate several physical servers into a single hypervisor. They are know determining the bandwidth
requirements of the application in order to purchase the current number of FCME CNAs for each server.
The results of their analysis for Tier 1 application are as follows: Average SAN Bandwidth: 3 Gb/s
Average LAN Bandwidth: 2 Gb/s
What is the minimum number of CNAs they would need to install an each server to meet the bandwidth
required for the Tier 1 application while providing CAN redundancy and high availability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the key business goal when consolidating by business application.?
A. Virtualize the compute environment for efficiency
B. Identify security gaps and increase security measures
C. Reduce footprint by decreasing energy and space requirements
D. Implement converged network technology for performance
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the first phase of the Virtual Data Center Design Process?
A. Evaluate technology options
B. Create plan
C. Perform initial analysis
D. Gather data
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two capacity management objectives often conflict with each other?
A. Manageability and redundancy
B. Availability and security
C. Compliance and efficiency
D. Efficiency and availability
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer has implemented a Vblock solution in their primary data centre. They are using a single
management tool set to configure and provisions the computer, network, and storage resources within the
Vblock.
Which management tool are they using?
A. EMC ControlCenter
B. EMC Unisphere
C. EMC United Infrastructure Manager
D. VMware vCenter
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are three attributes of a cloud services design?
A. Web-based APIs, shared resources, minimal capital expenditures
B. Static service, fixed priced access, improved economics
C. Accessed via a web portal, self-service, throttled access
D. Dedicated resources, usage-based pricing, web-based APIs
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is its approach to addressing performance issues during the Virtualize phrase of the cloud
maturity mode?
A. Selective
B. Investigative
C. Proactive
D. Reactive
Answer: D

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