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Exam Code: MSC-331
Exam Name: Designing and Deploying Mobile Computing Solutions
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
MSC-331 Test Answers Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-08-27

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NO.1 Which of the following 802.11 wireless supplicants are available and supported on Motorola
Solutions Mobile Computers (select TWO)?
A. Aegis
B. Fusion
C. Odyssey
D. Windows Zero Configuration
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Motorola Enterprise Mobility Configuration Tools (EMCTs) are comprehensive tools designed
to assist in staging, provisioning, and troubleshooting, as well as improving the user experience with
Motorola Mobile Devices. Which of the following are Motorola EMCTs Tools (select THREE)?
A. StartupCtl
B. PowerTest
C. RemCapture
D. CtlPanelWM
E. Spread Spectrum Analyzer
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 The design phase of the pilot is an area that is often neglected. Which of the following is NOT
true regarding the design phase?
A. The best time to influence a pilot's trustworthy design is at pilot completion.
B. The design phase typically relies on information gathered from the planning phase.
C. Good pilot design should ensure or facilitate a framework for periodic project evaluation.
D. During the design phase you establish best practices to follow for this phase by way of functional
and design specifications, and you perform risk analysis to identify threats and vulnerabilities in
your pilot.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Enterprise Mobility Developers Kit (EMDK) for .NET allows Microsoft: .NET Compact
Framework developers to programmatically access the enterprise mobility features on the devices.
This developer kit is designed for use with all of the following versions of Microsoft Visual Studio
EXCEPT:
A. Microsoft Visual Studio 2003
B. Microsoft Visual Studio 2005
C. Microsoft Visual Studio 2008
D. Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
Answer: D

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NO.5 A client needs a mobile device solution that requires the following:
GSM and/or CDMA WWAN
Small Form Factor
Consumer Style Device
Occasional Barcode and Photo Capture
What would be the best mobile device selection from the mobile device portfolio?
A. ET1
B. ES400
C. MC75A
D. MC3190
E. MC9090G
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your customer has selected a MC9190-G with a SE4500-SR scan engine. They are now asking
you what the maximum distance they can expect to scan 13 Mil standard UPC-A barcodes. Which of
the following would be your response?
Please reference the Technical Specifications exhibit at the bottom.
A. 6.8 in (17.27 cm)
B. 12.0 in (30.48 cm)
C. 15.5 in (39.37cm)
D. 27.0 in (68.58 cm)
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following memory forms is used in most memory cards and solid-state drives?
A. NOR Flash
B. NAND Flash
C. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
D. Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your are having issues establishing radio communication on a mobile computer and you think
that the client radio output is the problem. In which of the following areas can you adjust the
mobile computers radio transmit power?
A. Fusion Options
B. System Options
C. Regulatory Options
D. Profile Management Options
E. You cannot change the mobile computers radio transmit power
Answer: E

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Exam Code: MSC-122
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-20

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NO.1 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

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NO.8 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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NO.11 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-111
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-12

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NO.1 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.2 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.3 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.4 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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NO.7 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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NO.9 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.10 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.13 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.15 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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Exam Code: MSC-431
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-12

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NO.1 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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NO.2 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.3 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-122
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-13

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NO.1 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.3 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.14 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MSC-111

Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)

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NO.1 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.2 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.5 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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NO.7 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.9 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.10 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.11 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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NO.13 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.14 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.15 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MSC-111

Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)

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NO.1 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.2 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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NO.3 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.4 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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NO.5 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.7 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111   MSC-111 questions   MSC-111 braindump

NO.8 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.9 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.13 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.14 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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Exam Code: MSC-241

Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA)

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NO.1 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

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NO.3 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

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NO.5 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

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NO.9 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

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NO.10 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

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