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2014年2月9日星期日

The Best Symantec ST0-153 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: ST0-153
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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NO.2 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.3 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.4 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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NO.5 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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NO.6 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

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9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

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10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

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11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

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13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

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14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

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15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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2013年8月18日星期日

Latest training guide for Symantec ST0-147 ST0-135 250-530 ST0-085 ST0-153

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Exam Code: ST0-147

Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix Technical Assessment )

Exam Code: ST0-135

Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )

Exam Code: 250-530

Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 )

Exam Code: ST0-085

Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment)

Exam Code: ST0-153

Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)

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NO.1 What does the Correlation Engine analyze events against once all rules are properly defined?
A.the rule criteria, create triggers, and correlate conclusions into incidents
B.false positives, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
C.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
D.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and send conclusions to the database
Answer: C

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NO.2 What information is necessary to properly size a deployment?
A.hard drive space, events per second and geographic locations
B.events per second,collector types and incident-to-event ratio
C.hard drive space, incidents per second and collector types
D.events per second, geographic locations and event-to-incident ratio
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the specified minimum hardware requirements for installing and running the Symantec
Security Information Manager Console?
A.1 GB RAM and 1 GB disk space
B.1 GB RAM and 512 MB disk space
C.512 MB RAM and 1 GB disk space
D.512 MB RAM and 103 MB disk space
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which component escalates security events into incidents?
A.rules
B.events
C.incidents
D.tickets
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the hard drive specifications for the hardware?
A.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 5)
B.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 10)
C.6 drives (RAID 5)
D.2 drives (mirrored)
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which database houses incidents and summary data?
A.Oracle
B.MySQL
C.MSSQL
D.IBM DB2
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following vendor hardware is recommended to use with Symantec Security Information
Manager (SSIM)?
A.IBM
B.NEC
C.Dell
D.Hitachi
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are all on-box collectors?
A.PIX, UNIX Syslog and Data Leakage Prevention
B.Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C.PIX, Snort and Symantec Web Gateway
D.Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Control Compliance Suite
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which third-party software components support LDAP for users, roles, and configurations?
A.IBM Directory Server
B.Microsoft Active Directory Server
C.IBM DB2 8.1
D.IBM DB2 8.2
Answer: A

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NO.10 What information must be obtained prior to product deployment and configuration of the Symantec
Security Information Manager appliance?
A.which on-box collectors are appropriate for installation
B.the number of nodes found in the customer's infrastructure
C.the number of security events per day the appliance will handle
D.the air-conditioning and power requirements
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the critical business assets management feature?
A.It enables automatic identification and prioritization of security threats that impact business-critical
applications.
B.It obtains an overview of business assets.
C.It makes it possible to change collectors' configurations to meet business assets needs.
D.It provides a visual picture of where critical business assets are located.
Answer: D

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NO.12 On which two operating systems can the Symantec Security Information Manager Agent be installed?
(Select two.)
A.Solaris 9
B.Windows 2000
C.Centos
D.IBM AIX 5
E.HP-UX 11
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Symantec Security Information Manager Series Appliance installs which operating system by default?
A.Solaris
B.Windows
C.SUSE
D.Red Hat
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which OS listed does hardware used for the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) image
support?
A.SUSE
B.Centos
C.Redhat
D.SE Linux
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content in near-realtime
from Symantec?
A.LiveUpdate
B.LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C.Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D.Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Where do Symantec Security Information Manager collectors send events?
A.Event Disposition
B.Event Archive
C.Event Reporting
D.Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which component sends events to the Event Service for processing?
A.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) collector
B.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box collector
C.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) off-box collector
D.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) agent
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is Device-level aggregation?
A.parsing data with data sensors
B.grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C.forwarding event data to the appliance
D.event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which tab on the Information Manager Console allows you to view threat and vulnerability information?
A.Rules
B.Dashboard
C.Reports
D.Intelligence
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the difference between Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box and off-box
collectors?
A.Off-box collectors are installed on the SSIM products and on-box collectors are installed on the
appliance.
B.On-box collectors are installed prior to SSIM software installation and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
C.On-box collectors are automatically installed with the SSIM software and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
D.Off-box collectors are installed on the appliance and on-box collectors are installed on assets.
Answer: C

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