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Exam Code: 000-107

Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and AIX Technical Sales Skills - v1)

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NO.1 A customer with multiple Power System Servers wants the ability to update operating system and
firmware on all the servers and monitor the network system health with servers and attached storage.
Which edition of IBM System Director is required?
A. Basic
B. Express
C. Standard
D. Enterprise
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which AIX Edition includesall components nessary for Live Application mobility?
A. Basic
B. Express
C. Standard
D. Enterprise
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has an 8-core Power 720 with three partitions. the Power 720 is configured with an AIX 6.1
partition using 2.3 processors, an AIX 7.1 parition using 3.5 processors and a Linux partition using 1.8
processors. The customer wants to purchase a duplicate Power 720 and create an active to passive
PowerHA disaster recover solution. How many licenses of PowerHA SystemMirror for AIX are required for
this solution?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 16
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has purchased two servers which need several identical LPAR profiles defined. What
resource allows an administrator to create LPAR definitions and import them into the HMC?
A. SPT
B. WLE
C. NIM
D. eConfig
Answer: A

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NO.5 How many total processor threads are possible when a customer migrates a workload requiring AIX
5.3 from an 8-core Power 550 to an 8-core Power 750?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is enabled by using NPIV technology for fibre channel adapters?
A. Sharing SAN disks as vSCSI disks
B. Multipathing and load balancing SAN traffic
C. Combining SAN and LAN traffic on one adapter
D. Virtualization and sharing of SAN adapters with client LPARs
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Edition of Systems Director should be recommended to an IT Director who wants performance
analysis and capacity trend analysis reporting?
A. Systems Director Express Edition
B. Systems Director Standard Edition
C. Systems Director Enterprise Edition
D. Systems Director Standard Edition with the Capacity Analysis Plug-In
Answer: C

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NO.8 System software for the Power 780 server is licensed at which tier?
A. Large
B. Small
C. Medium
D. Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which AIX edition is intended for price sensitive situations involving smaller workloads?
A. AIX Basic Edition
B. AIX Entry Edition
C. AIX Express Edition
D. AIX Standard Edition
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has a requirement to eliminate single points of failure for an application. They have
allocated one Ethernet adapter to each VIO server on the system. Which features of PowerVM and AIX
will support the customer requirement?
A. Etherchannel and trunking
B. Network Interface Backup and Etherchannel
C. Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) Failover and Etherchannel
D. Network Interface Backup and Shared Ethernet Adapter failover
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer plans to consolidate two existing POWER6 processor-based servers to a Power 770. In
what way will Live Partition Mobility benefit them?
A. It enables hot-swap of adapters from the old systems to the new system.
B. The old and new systems can be run in parallel to test new system functionality.
C. LPARs can be moved from the old systems to the new one while they are still running
D. The system serial number will remain the same after the upgrade for accounting purposes.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer is interested in PS700 Blade with 32GB of memory. The Blade will have 4 partitions sharing
resources equally. They want the least expensive operating system that supports Live Partition Mobility.
Which of the following AIX Editions address their requirement?
A. Basic
B. Express
C. Standard
D. Enterprise
Answer: B

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NO.13 A small IT department is deploying Power 720 servers exploiting virtualization technologies. Each
Power 720 will have two partitions, one with 6 cores and one with 2 cores, and both partitions having
32GB of memory each. Live Partition Mobility is being considered at some point in the future. What is the
minimum AIX Edition required to support the customer?
A. AIX Basic Edition
B. AIX Express Edition
C. AIX Standard Edition
D. AIX Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer is interested in PS700 Blade with 32GB of memory. The Blade will have 4 partitions sharing
resources equally. They are looking for the least expensive operating system that supports Live Partition
Mobility. Which of the following AIX Editions address their requirement.?
A. Basic
B. Express
C. Standard
D. Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.15 The system administrator at a university has many standalone machines and wants to consolidate
them, minimizing the amount of time to upgrade all of the operating systems. Which of the following
solutions supports the requirement?
A. Micropartitions
B. Logical Partitions
C. Dynamic Partitions
D. Workload Partitions
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M66

Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Information Server Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 The Informational Content of a QualityStage Match phase report measures ______________
A. the severity of false positives and false negatives.
B. the significance of discriminating value and frequency.
C. the degree of importance of a particular data field.
D. the confidence of a match.
Answer: B

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NO.2 In which scenario are the MetaBrokers and Bridges not needed?
A. When you are using the Import/Export Manager utility
B. When you export a business glossary model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
C. When you export a physical model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
D. When you use Metadata Workbench to see the data and job lineage
Answer: D

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NO.3 In DataStage, Table Definitions are imported through ______________________?
A. DataStage Administrator.
B. Information Server Web Console.
C. DataStage Designer.
D. DataStage Director.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tool would you recommend to get an accurate view of the quality of data stored in a DB2 or an
Oracle table, and be able to determine easily the frequency distribution and the format of that data?
A. Use the native DBMS catalog tables, and retrieve the detailed statistics
B. InfoSphere Metadata Workbench
C. InfoSphere Information Analyzer
D. InfoSphere FastTrack
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which one of the following is a data quality challenge that can be addressed by QualityStage?
A. Too many data values for a single domain.
B. Too many records containing the default value for a single domain.
C. Data values appear on report in different format than stored.
D. Buried information.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-919

Exam Name: IBM (Informix 11.70 System Administrator)

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NO.1 Which statement about auditing is NOT true?
A. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows in the table.
B. You can enable auditing row updates just for a subset of rows in the table.
C. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database except for system
catalog tables.
D. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database and for the system
catalog tables.
Answer: B

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NO.2 By default, the alarm program gets executed for which event(s)?
A. All events.
B. Only for events with Severity code 1.
C. Only for events with Severity code 5.
D. Only for events with Severity code greater than 1.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement about the scope of UPDATE STATISTICS is true?
A. If the FOR PROCEDURE keywords are included but the name of any SPL routine is not specified, an
error will be returned.
B. If the FOR TABLE keywords are used without specifying the name or synonym of a table, the database
will not recalculate distributions for any table in the current database.
C. If the FOR TABLE keywords are specified with a table but without specifying a list of columns, the
database server will not recalculate distributions on all of the columns of the specified table.
D. If the FOR PROCEDURE specification, Table and Column Scope, and Resolution clauses are NOT
included, then the statistics are updated for every table and SPL routine in the current database.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which sysmaster table can be queried to find the logging status of a database?
A. sysdb
B. sysdblog
C. sysdatabases
D. sysdblogstatus
Answer: C

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NO.5 What output is NOT reported by the dbschema utility?
A. The database logging mode.
B. The schemas of remote databases.
C. The table definitions without owner names.
D. Theonspaces commands to re-create your systems' dbspaces.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which SQL Administration API command will merge non-contiguous table extents?
A. shrink
B. defragment
C. table repack
D. merge extents
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following privileges is NOT valid for a table fragment?
A. ALL
B. INSERT
C. UPDATE
D. CREATE INDEX
Answer: D

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NO.8 How is the DBSSO group determined on a Unix system with role separation?
A. It is always the groupinformix.
B. It is set using theonsecurity command line tool.
C. It is the group that owns $INFORMIXDIR/dbssodir.
D. It is the group specified in the DBSSOonconfig parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which command line utility displays real time statistics about the instance?
A. dbinfo
B. onstat
C. dbschema
D. onmachinfo
Answer: B

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NO.10 When a SELECT statement is executed which statement is true?
A. The number and duration of the locks is dependent on the ISOLATION LEVEL.
B. If COMMITTED READ isolation is in place then the SELECT will never encounter any locking errors.
C. Within a transaction the database server will place row or page locks on anonlogging table.
D. If the SELECT is part of an UPDATE cursor then the database server will place an exclusive lock on
the entire dataset.
Answer: A

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NO.11 For a given procedure name, what is the objective of the SQL query shown below?
A. The query returns the ordered text form of the specified procedure body.
B. The query returns the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
C. The query returns both ordered text and ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
D. The query returns neither the ordered text nor the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure
body.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following activities does the Secure-Auditing Facility NOT monitor and record?
A. Specific rows.
B. Specific users.
C. Specific tables.
D. Specific DML operations.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which role can create, alter, or delete trusted context objects?
A. DBA
B. DBSA
C. DBSSO
D. DBSECADM
Answer: D

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NO.14 Why do automatic checkpoints cause the database server to trigger more frequent checkpoints?
A. To avoid LRU flushes.
B. To ensure the buffer pool is always available.
C. To ensure theonstat -g ckp report is accurate.
D. To avoid transaction blocking during checkpoints.
Answer: D

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NO.15 To enable network encryption, what two steps must the administrator complete? (Choose two.)
A. Enter the CSM name in thesqlhosts file.
B. Set the IFX_ENCCSMonconfig parameter to 1.
C. Define the CSM in the concsm.cfg configuration file.
D. Enter the CSM name in theonconfig NETTYPE parameter.
E. Set the environment variable ENCCSMCFG to the name of the CSM.
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 Which two corrective actions may be taken if following message is logged in the online message log
during a failed attempt to bring an instance online? (Choose two)
18:15:44
Size of resident + virtual segments 100000KB + 60000KB > 150000KB
18:15:44
total allowed by configuration parameter SHMTOTAL
A.
Decrease SHMADD
B.
Increase SHMTOTAL
C.
Decrease SHMBASE
D.
Increase SHMVIRTSIZE
E.
Decrease buffer pool size
Answer: B,E

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NO.17 Which onstat command will allow the gathering of statistics about the Informix Database Scheduler
tasks that are currently running or scheduled to be run?
A. onstat -g dbc
B. onstat -g sch
C. onstat -g adm
D. onstat -g tsk
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement about mapped user functionality is true?
A. Mapped users cannot execute distributed operations.
B. Mapped users are allowed to run with multiple names.
C. The DBSA can control the access to tables at a row level using security labels.
D. The DBSA can grant database server access to externally authenticated users with no local account.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What does the ovbuff field of an onstat -p output show?
A. The number of times that a buffer was read.
B. The number of times a buffer was extended.
C. The number of times that any buffer was overwritten.
D. The number of times the instance ran out offree buffers.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which statement regarding default roles is true?
A. An administrator can define a default role to assign only to the PUBLIC group for a particular database.
B. The privileges associated with a default role takes precedence over the privileges granted to an
individual user.
C. An administrator can define a default role to assign to individual users or to the PUBLIC group for a
particular database.
D. When a user connects to a database, it is necessary to use the SET ROLE DEFAULT statement in
order to gain the default role privileges.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-034

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Fundamentals)

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NO.1 How are new managed systems groups created?
A. They are created when IBM Tivoli Monitoring is installed.
B. They are created in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services.
C. They are created using the Object Editor under the Managed Systems Group tab.
D. They are created with the Situation Editor within the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What type of link uniquely identifies the target workspace?
A. Dynamic
B. Filtered
C. Relative
D. Absolute
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where are attributes to be displayed in a workspace view selected?
A. In the Query tab of each workspace Properties.
B. In the Filters tab of each workspace Properties.
C. In the Query tab of each workspace view's Properties.
D. In the Filters tab of each workspace view's Properties.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How are attributes related to workspaces?
A. Workspaces use views to display attributes to the user.
B. Workspaces use attributes to determine graph types to display to the user.
C. Workspace settings are stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server using attributes.
D. Workspaces use attributes to determine which navigator items to associate with in the Navigator tree.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two places can Workspace Administration Mode permission authority be set? (Choose two.)
A. Users
B. Members
C. Member Of
D. User Groups
E. User Policies
Answer: A, D

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NO.6 What are the three default user groups provided with Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Operator
B. Administrator, Application Users, Operator
C. Application Users, Diagnostic Users, Operator
D. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Application Users
Answer: A

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NO.7 How is it determined if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. Launch the Situation Editor from the toolbar.
B. Right click the Required Navigator Item and select Situations.
C. Select the properties for the Navigator Item and click Situations.
D. Filter the situations for the Navigator item by Associated with Navigator Item.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the connectors in a Common Event Console?
A. The Event Handler is incorporated to pass events.
B. Connect to an event repository for the Common Event Console.
C. Retrieve event data to be displayed in the Common Event Console.
D. Send messages to the Message Log view from the Common Event Console.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is provided for a user to view agent specific IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) data when Application
Support is installed and configured on ITM components?
A. Workspaces, Users, Events
B. Workspaces, Situations, Queries
C. Expert Advice, Charts, Templates
D. Situations, Queries, Take Actions
Answer: B

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NO.10 When can an acknowledgement be created?
A. When others are working on the event.
B. When operations staff makes a request.
C. When an event indicator is visible in the Navigator.
D. When a situation fires and the administrator wants to be first to acknowledge the event.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What determines the eligibility of a situation to a Navigator item?
A. Situation type.
B. Situation event state.
C. Managed systems associated with the Navigator item.
D. All situations are eligible for association with any Navigator item.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When performing an investigation into the increased disk space usage of a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Agent, it is discovered that the historical data file is quite large. Which two actions will decrease the
amount of data stored in that file? (Choose two.)
A. Change Summarization from Daily to Hourly.
B. Reduce the Warehouse Interval from 1 day to 1 hour.
C. Increase the Warehouse Interval from 1 hour to 12 hours.
D. Increase the Collection Interval from 1 minute to 15 minutes.
E. Decrease the Collection Interval from 30 minutes to 5 minutes.
Answer: B, D

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NO.13 How does a sampled event get closed in IBM Tivoli Monitoring?
A. A sampled event can be manually closed by a user.
B. A sampled event is closed after 60 minutes by default.
C. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it becomes true.
D. A sampled event is closed when the condition that raised it is no longer true.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is an example of a data element that can be monitored with a situation?
A. CPU usage.
B. Timestamp for event arrival.
C. Event acknowledgement time.
D. Number of situations deployed.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two items are managed by right clicking an agent in a navigator tree? (Choose two.)
A. Queries
B. Policies
C. Situations
D. Attributes
E. Attribute Groups
Answer: B, C

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NO.16 What is the minimum interval for Summarization and Pruning?
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.17 When is persistent event monitoring useful in IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM)?
A. To count the number of events in ITM.
B. To determine when a situation is needed.
C. To determine whether a condition is consistent or intermittent.
D. To determine when more agents must be deployed across a ITM environment.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is used to quickly switch from one workspace to another in the Desktop Portal Client?
A. Link
B. Launch
C. Bookmark
D. Graphic Icon
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which workspace chart best represents the proportional value of each data point to the whole.?
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Plot Chart
D. Circular Gauge Chart
Answer: A

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NO.20 Where are policies designed in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client?
A. In the Views.
B. In the Workspace.
C. In the Workflow Editor.
D. In the Situation Editor.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-537

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 Implementation)

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NO.1 The customer would like an automated backup of their entire directory server instance configuration,
schema and data with minimal downtime. Which IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) backup methodology
would be appropriate?
A. perform the db2 backup utlity
B. perform the idsdb2ldif utility
C. configure online backup using the idsxcfg utlity
D. schedule online backup using the ITDS Web Administration Tool
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a requirement for an IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) Proxy Server?
A. a DB2 database
B. an ITDS LDAP Server
C. an Active Directory forest
D. an IBM WebSphere Edge Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which tool can be used for an IBM Tivoli Directory Server migration?
A. idsxcfg utility
B. idsimigr utility
C. idsdiradm utility
D. idsldif2db utility
Answer: B

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NO.4 The customer has a requirement to send updates through a proxy server. What authority should be
planned?
A. Anonymous User
B. System Administrator
C. Local Administration Group Member
D. Global Administration Group Member
Answer: D

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NO.5 The customer wants to deploy IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 (ITDS) in a Solaris environment. On
which two Solaris platforms can ITDS be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. PowerPC
B. Solaris 32-bit
C. SUNW,Ultra-1
D. Solaris SPARC 64-bit
E. Solaris Global Zone on Solaris 10
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 The customer has a requirement to secure LDAP communications. Which statement is true for server
authentication?
A. LDAP client must have a public key and associated client certificate in the client's key database file.
B. LDAP server must have a public key and associated client certificate in the client's key database file.
C. LDAP client must have a private key and associated server certificate in the client's key database file.
D. LDAP server must have a private key and associated server certificate in the server's key database
file.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) interfaces are used for both online backup and restore?
(Choose two.)
A. Administrator Console Tool
B. idsdbbackup command line
C. idsldapexop command line
D. ITDS Web Administration Tool
E. idsdbrestore command line
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 The customer wants to install the IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) Web Administration Tool. What is a
prerequisite to accomplish this?
A. IBM HTTP Server
B. Microsoft IIS Server
C. Oracle WebLogic Server
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.9 How can a custom attribute or objectclass definition be added to the schema of an IBM Tivoli Directory
Server (ITDS) instance?
A. use the LDAP Control Center
B. use the ITDS Instance Administration Tool
C. use the ITDS Web Administration Tool
D. add the definition to the ibmslapd.conf file
Answer: C

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NO.10 The customer must deploy a component of IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 (ITDS) 32-bit on AIX. Which
component can be deployed in this manner.?
A. ITDS Client
B. ITDS Server
C. ITDS Proxy Server
D. ITDS Web Administration Tool
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are two common attributes used to create a person entry? (Choose two.)
A. sn
B. cn
C. uid
D. lastname
E. givenname
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Applications authenticate to the IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3. Which two pieces of information are
used for authentication? (Choose two.)
A. cn attribute
B. unique identified name
C. ibm-entryuuid attribute
D. userPassword attribute
E. full distinguished name
Answer: D,E

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NO.13 What type of objectclass is required in order to define an LDAP entry to be loaded into an IBM Tivoli
Directory Server V6.3 environment?
A. auxiliary
B. absolute
C. structural
D. hierarchical
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which file format is used to load customer data?
A. DSML file from a Web Application Server
B. MS Word document of department entries
C. an XML extract from a department spreadsheet
D. LDIF file extract from a Human Resources system
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two attribute types are available on an objectclass definition? (Choose two.)
A. nominal
B. required
C. optional
D. unrestricted
E. generalized date syntax
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 In the IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 (ITDS) requirements document for a customer project there is a
requirement for a proxy server for distributed data. What planning for the proxy server is necessary?
A. to act as a front-end server to distribute requests to multiple ITDS servers
B. to act as a back-end server to distribute requests to multiple ITDS servers
C. to set up logical connections between ITDS and Active Directory for distributed data
D. to set up logical connections between ITDS and SunOne Directory for distributed data
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which password encryption supports two-way encryption?
A. AES
B. MD5
C. Crypt
D. SHA1
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which action is typically taken prior to performing a migration of an IBM Tivoli Directory Server
environment?
A. backup of Audit log
B. backup of user data
C. backup of replication database
D. backup of the Changelog database
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which versions of IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) can be directly migrated to ITDS V6.3?
A. only ITDS V6.2
B. all ITDS V6.x versions
C. all previous ITDS versions
D. all ITDS V5.x and V6.x versions
Answer: B

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NO.20 Given the security requirements for securing passwords in an IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3
environment, which three encryption algorithms are available? (Choose three.)
A. des
B. md7
C. aes512
D. aes256
E. ssha384
F. ssha512
Answer: D,E,F

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Exam Code: 000-M89

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Cast Iron Technical Mastery Test V1)

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NO.1 What could be the meaning of ast Iron ?Integration in days?
What could be the meaning of astIron Integration in days?
A. Cast Iron provides a rich library to be used with Custom Code.
B. Cast Iron allows you easily create Java code.
C. Cast Iron uses the Configuration, not Coding Approach.
D. Only Cast Iron appliance gives you fast integration.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When estimating the level of effort, which of the following is relevant?
A. The quality of the data to integrate.
B. The number of use cases.
C. The dependencies on other processes or objects.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which delivery model are ISV partners asking to move towards.?
A. Physical appliance.
B. Virtual appliance.
C. Cloud2.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are Cast Iron product delivery options?What are Cast Iron? product delivery options?
A. Cloud, physical appliance, and virtual appliance.
B. Cloud only.
C. Appliance only.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following areas is included in the Feasibility and Scoping Document to be filled out?
A. Outline of the business case and its solution.
B. Identification of all endpoints and their respective versions.
C. Use Cases for which an integration needs to be implemented.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-558

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Database Assoc - Informix Fundamentals 11.70)

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NO.1 You have a database server environment where all databases use buffered logging. In which two
conditions are the logical-log buffers in shared memory flushed to the logical log on disk? (Choose two.)
A. When the buffer is full.
B. When a checkpoint occurs.
C. When a user issues a begin work.
D. When a user commits the transaction.
E. When a user rolls back the transaction.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which Informix data movement utilities listed below can be used to move database from a computer
running Windows operating system to an Apple computer?
A. ontape
B. onunload and onload
C. ifxsend and ifxreceive
D. dbexport and dbimport
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two system level databases? (Choose two.)
A. sysperf
B. sysadmin
C. sysmaster
D. sysmonitor
E. sysscheduler
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which command would you execute to restore to a specific moment-in-time.?
A. onbar -t timestamp
B. onbar -r -log lognum
C. onbar -r -t timestamp
D. onbar -r -l timestamp
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two operations are performed with the onspaces command? (Choose two.)
A. Add space to the server.
B. Compress server space.
C. Encrypt the server space.
D. Remove space from the server.
E. Restrict access to the server space.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two of the following are required for creating a dbspace? (Choose two.)
A. a mirror chunk
B. two or more chunks
C. a cooked file or raw device
D. a file owned by root or administrator
E. dbspace name containing only letters, digits, underscores, or $ characters.
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Which of the following is true about system catalog tables access?
A. Only user informix can read system catalog tables
B. Only system administrators can read system catalog tables
C. Only database administrators can read system catalog tables
D. Any user that can connect to the database can read system catalog tables
Answer: D

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NO.9 You want to use sqlhosts file /newlocation/newsqlhosts. Which of the following is true?
A. sqlhosts file must be called sqlhosts
B. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/sqlhosts
C. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/newsqlhosts
D. sqlhosts file must be defined under $INFORMIXDIR/etc/ directory
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which command option should be used to resume an interrupted onbar restore?
A. -RETRY
B. -RESTART
C. -REINTIIALZE
D. -BEGIN_AGAIN
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which utility can be used to relocate the physical log to a new dbspace?
A. onlog
B. ontape
C. onspaces
D. onparams
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which isolation level is appropriate if you do not want your query to place any locks?
A. Dirty Read
B. Cursor Stability
C. Committed Read
D. Repeatable Read
Answer: A

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NO.13 How can you determine which databases are created in an instance?
A. use dbschema utility
B. inspect ONCONFIG file
C. List reserved pages with oncheck -pr
D. run SELECT name FROM sysmaster:sysdatabases
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) locking row".
B. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock level row".
C. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock mode row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create table t1(c1 int)".
E. Set the environment variable DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW before executing "create table t1(c1
int)".
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Given INFORMIXCONTIME = 60 and INFORMIXCONRETRY = 3, if the initial connection attempt fails,
what subsequent attempts will be made to connect?
A. 60 and 120 seconds before aborting
B. Every 3 minutes within one hour before aborting
C. Every 3 seconds within one hour before aborting
D. Wait indefinitely until it is successfully completed
Answer: A

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NO.16 A progammer wants to unload a table to a file inside a stored procedure. What functionality listed
below will help the programmer accomplish the task?
A. dbload
B. dbexport
C. external table
D. SQL unload statement
Answer: C

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NO.17 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to reduce disk I/O
B. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
C. to increase concurrency among multiple users on the same table
D. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
Answer: C

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator created a table using the SQL statement shown in the exhibit to perform a load operation
every day at 11:00 AM. What is the best way to optimize a backup strategy to recover the client table in
case of a failure?
A. a level-1 backup at 6:00 AM everyday
B. a level-0 backup soon after the load operation
C. a level-1 backup on Sunday and continuous log backup
D. a level-2 backup at 6:00 AM every day and continuous log backup
Answer: B

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NO.19 When restoring data, which granularity of object may NOT be restored?
A. a single table
B. a single chunk
C. a single dbspace
D. an entire instance
Answer: B

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NO.20 Under which of the following conditions does the LAST COMMITTED option have an effect on the
COMMITTED READ isolation level?
A. Row level lock
B. Page level locking
C. RAW or unlogged tables
D. Tables containing complex data types
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-642

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer)

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NO.1 How would the scorecard developer delete the Marketing scorecard and move its children under the
Corporate scorecard.?
A. In the user interface, drag the children to the Corporate scorecard and then delete the Marketing
scorecard.
B. In the user interface, mark the Marketing scorecard for deletion, drag the Corporate scorecard and run
re-calculate metrics derived values.
C. In the .cmo file, re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
D. In the .cmdfile. re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tile extension must be used on the tab-delimited file that defines relationships between objects?
A. .cmo
B. .cmr
C. .cml
D. .cmm
Answer: C

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NO.3 What directory contains log files needed to troubleshoot problems importing data?
A. installation_location/logs/MetricStorelnstall
B. installation_location/logs/MetricMaintenance
C. installation_location/logs/MetricUpgradePackage
D. installation_location/logs/MetricStoreUpgrade
Answer: B

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NO.4 A tab-delimited file with a cmm extension contains what type of objects?
A. Metrics
B. Metric types
C. Metric values
D. Import sources
Answer: B

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NO.5 A user needs to update target values ONLY for:
Americas Return quantity %
Americas Return quantity % Defective product
Americas Return quantity % Incomplete product
What minimum permissions MUST be applied on the objects for that user?
A. Write target values permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor
scorecards.
B. Write permissions to the three metrics and traverse permissions to all ancestor scorecards.
C. Write target values permissions to the three metrics and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
D. Write permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which activities can only be performed by the Metric Store Administrator?
A. Set policies.
B. Create the root scorecard.
C. Run import and export options.
D. Add links to a CognosBI report.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What must be done to load the data successfully into Metric Studio using structured query language
(SQL) scripts?
A. Perform the task Recalculate metric store derived values after each script execution.
B. Perform the task Import data from files into staging area after each script execution
C. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the content store.
D. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the staging tables
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about staging tables?
A. Staging tables map to Data ManagerTables
B. Staging tables map to tab-delimited files
C. Staging tables map to tables in the data warehouse
D. Staging tables map to tables in the content store
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator attempted to transfer metric values from the staging area into the metric store.
However, not all of the metrics were populated with expected values. In which table can the administrator
locate the rejected rows for review, correction, and reloading?
A. KPI_VALUE_STAGE_REJECTS
B. OBJECT_STAGE_REJECTS
C. METRIC_TYPE_STAGE_REJECTS
D. OBJECT_NOTE_STAGE_REJECTS
Answer: A

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NO.10 A tab-delimited file with a cmo extension can be used to create what type of object?
A. Scorecards
B. Metric types
C. Calendar levels
D. Permissions
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-561

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 Implem)

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NO.1 Log Evidence is enabled for an event and an administrator wants to review the packet content. Where
in the Local Management Interface is this log file downloaded?
A. under Security Settings, select the policy that logs the event, click on Download Log, and the save file
B. select Review, under Downloads select Logs and Packet Captures, select the files, and click Download
C. on the Security Dashboard, click the Evidence Logs link, click all files related to the event, and save the
files
D. select Home Dashboard, scroll down to the section on evidence logs, select the log file(s), and click
Download
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which interface mode is required in order for quarantine response rules to work?
A. Bypass Mode
B. Inline Protection Mode
C. Inline Simulation Mode
D. Passive Monitoring Mode
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two user notification response object types are available in IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. SMS
B. E-mail
C. Remedy
D. Voicemail
E. SNMP Trap/Inform
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Where in the Local Management Interface is the location of the date and time of the last backup of an
IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 viewable?
A. Evidence log
B. Message log
C. System Dashboard
D. Security Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where would a user be added to allow a remote user to access the IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3 Local Management Interface?
A. the Remote Access policy in IBM Security SiteProtector System (SiteProtector)
B. the User Management utility in SiteProtector
C. the Accounts and Passwords page in the Web interface
D. the Password Management menu in the SSH Configuration menu
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are two restrictions placed on remote users using IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention
System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot reboot the appliance.
B. They cannot log in to the local console.
C. They cannot change the local user account passwords.
D. They cannot save changes to policies in the Web interface.
E. They cannot log in to the appliance when the authentication server is down.
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Where in the IBM Security SiteProtector System Console can a customer find the link status of the
Security Interfaces on an IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. the networkinfo section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
B. the Intrusion Prevention section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
C. the Security Interfaces section on the Health Summary Network tab in the appliance Properties screen
D. the Internal Communication section on the Health Summary System tab in the appliance Properties
screen
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to change the severity of an IBM Protocol Analysis Module signature from high to low
in a given protection domain. Which policy meets this requirement?
A. Security Events
B. Open Signatures
C. System Updates
D. X-Force Virtual Patch
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which file is accessed on the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 appliance to
determine why it is Active with Errors in IBM Security SiteProtector System?
A. Boot log file
B. Kernel log file
C. Engine0 log file
D. Messages log file
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which area of the IBM Protocol Analysis Module technology prevents Skype from using enterprise
network bandwidth?
A. Data Security
B. Application Control
C. Threat Detection and Prevention
D. Client-side Application Protection
Answer: B

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NO.11 Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) exclusions have been added to a Protection Domain, however
events from those VLANs seem to be generated anyway. What is the most likely cause?
A. A VLAN cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
B. Multiple VLANs cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
C. Incorrect interfaces have been specified in a custom Protection Domain.
D. The same exception has not been created on the Global Protection Domain.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are two purposes for the Quarantine Rules in the Response Tuning page in the Local
Management Interface? (Choose two.)
A. add new quarantine rules
B. set network configuration options
C. temporarily disable a quarantine rule
D. review rules generated in response to intruder events
E. define how the appliance should send notifications when it detects an intrusion in the network
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 How is a firewall rule configured to block remote desktop (RDP) access for all interfaces and all Virtual
Local Area Networks.?
A. protocol=TCP, source port exclude RDP
B. action=ignore, select Interfaces, protocol=TCP, port=3389
C. keep all default settings but change the target port to 3389
D. action=drop, protocol=UDP, target port uncheck any and enter 3389
Answer: C

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NO.14 Where is the provinfo file stored?
A. /var/cache
B. /var/support/
C. root directory
D. admin directory
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which file can be imported or compiled, and defines the format of SNMP traps for security events
responses in the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. iss.mib
B. ibm.mib
C. linux.mib
D. snmp.mib
Answer: A

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