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Exam Code: HP0-J43
Exam Name: HP SAN Infrastructure and Solutions -v10.21 HP0-J43
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is a benefit of connecting servers to the SAN one HBA at a time?
A.guarantees the connections are properly documented
B.allows the switch time to balance the load
C.prevents having to reboot the server
D.verifies the HBA logs into the fabric properly
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which task included in HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs is performed by the project
manager.?
A.coordinates service deployment on third-party-maintained hardware and software
B.develops tests to validate the presence of the installed storage switches
C.develops the project plan, which defines the scope of the services to be delivered
D.conducts the customer orientation session
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Microsoft command can be used to find an SMTP server IP address when configuring HP SAN
Visibility?
A.netstat
B.netsh
C.nslookup
D.mxquery
Answer: C

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NO.4 What must you do to enable NPIV on QLogic HBAs on systems running VMware ESX 4.0?
A.Use the RBSU to enable NPIV on the HBA.
B.Replace the HBA with a Brocade HBA.
C.Update to VMware ESX 4.1.
D.No action is required because the supplied QLogic driver has NPIV enabled by default.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A SAN extension using FCIP with Continuous Access EVA is being implemented. Best practices dictate
using separate switches for host and replication fabrics. A high availability, no single point of failure design
is specified, however the customer only has a single ISL available between sites. Which SAN
configuration meets these requirements?
A.4-fabric
B.3-fabric
C.6-fabric
D.5-fabric
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do you verify a successfully completed firmware upgrade done through DCFM?
A.Right-click on the switch in the Connectivity Map and select Verify.
B.Check the heartbeat LED on the switch.
C.Select the verify action from the DCFM Firmware Management page.
D.Open Web Tools for the switch and review the event log.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which management tool ships at no additional charge with each B-Series SAN Switch?
A.Device Manager
B.HAFM
C.DCFM Professional
D.Enterprise Edition Fabric Manager
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which technologies or products are covered by the HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs?
(Select three.)
A.HP StorageWorks EVA 8400
B.fabric-based encryption
C.P4000 G2 scale-out cluster
D.HP StorageWorks ESL e-Series Library
E.HP BladeSystem FC or Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) switches
F.Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
Answer: BEF

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NO.9 Which functionality is added to the B-Series DCFM GUI with the Enterprise Edition?
A.connectivity map
B.minimap
C.toolbox
D.utilization legend
Answer: D

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NO.10 To ensure correct device discovery while implementing a simple SAN, what is the HP recommended
timing for powering up the online storage?
A.before the SAN Switches
B.before the tape library
C.after the router
D.after the servers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M40
Exam Name: HP HP Network Automation 9.x Software HP0-M40
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which port scanner do you use to discover network devices in HP Network Automation 9.0?
A. Nmap
B. Superscan
C. Unicornscan
D. Scanrand
Answer: A

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NO.2 When a user is being created, several things must be configured and/or assigned. Which entity can a
user be assigned to during the creation process?
A. groups
B. roles
C. command permissions
D. script permissions
Answer: A

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NO.3 Satellite Remote Agents send syslog messages to trigger a snapshot by an HP Network Automation
(NA) component.
What is this component?
A. NA Core associated with the satellite
B. Satellite Gateway host
C. NA Core hosting the database
D. host running the NA Core Management Engine
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the term for multiple cores connected through database replication?
A. Site
B. Realm
C. Mesh
D. Partition
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which page view does the exhibit display?
A. Monitor Status
B. Event Status
C. Server Monitor
D. System Status
Answer: D

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NO.6 When you click Save Device, HP Network Automation automatically begins driver discovery using two
main access methods.
What is one of these access methods?
A. RMI
B. SCP
C. TFTP
D. CLI
Answer: D

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NO.7 The IT Compliance Life Cycle in HP Network Automation has four stages. Which stage includes the
activity of establishing a workflow plan?
A. Discovery
B. Definition
C. Control
D. Maturity
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a main work area in the My Workspace Window?
A. Current Device Group
B. My Tasks
C. Current Work Flows
D. Search
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is one of the default roles included in HP Network Automation?
A. User Manager
B. Core Administrator
C. Device Manager
D. Limited Access
Answer: D

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NO.10 To which entity are command permissions assigned?
A. Partitions
B. Realm
C. Roles
D. Users
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-P14
Exam Name: HP Planning & Design of HP Integrity HP0-P14
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which virtualization solution is available on Integrity mid-range servers, but not entry-level servers?
A. Integrity Virtual Machines (VM)
B. hard partitions within a node
C. HP-UX processor sets (psets)
D. Process Resource Manager (PRM)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Core-to-core and core-to-I/O hub communication enables scalability in large multiprocessor systems
and increases capacity for I/O-intensive applications, such as transactional enterprise databases.
Which feature of Itanium processor 9300 series quad-core processors accelerates this capability?
A. Intel Scalable Memory Interconnect
B. Intel QuickPath Technology
C. Intel 7500 Scalable Memory Buffer
D. Intel Turbo Boost Technology
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which new features are available with Secure Resource Partitioning (SRP) 2.1? (Select two.)
A. management GUI that is integrated with SMH and HP SIM
B. integration of Serviceguard packages into the SRP environment
C. single administration domain per system
D. expanded local administration
E. cloning and migration of secure resource partitions between systems
Answer: BE

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NO.5 In which environments can resource partitions be used according to HP best practices? (Select two.)
A. Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs)
B. processor sets (psets)
C. hard partitions (nPars)
D. virtual partitions (vPars)
E. service level objectives (SLOs)
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which function does Integrated Lights-Out 2 (iLO 2) perform on Integrity rx8640 and rx7640 servers?
A. deallocates the processor and memory during a failure
B. initializes system LAN and SAN hardware
C. manages online replace/add/delete
D. reports system status
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are the differences between Integrity Virtual Machine (VM) and virtual partitions? (Select two.)
A. Integrity VM assigns processor resources to workloads according to service level objectives.
B. Integrity VM can run multiple operating system types and versions.
C. Virtual partitions use dedicated hardware, Integrity VM does not.
D. Virtual partitions can share memory and I/O resources between kernels.
E. Virtual partitions allow resources to be assigned down to 5% of a processor.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 How does HP Integrated Lights-Out 3 (iLO 3) benefit an Integrity server system?
A. It increases operating system reliability.
B. It permits communication between cells of a cell-based system.
C. It increases security by encrypting traffic over the Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI).
D. It enables system management when the operating system is not booted.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your customer is considering replacing their mainframe with Integrity BL890c i2 server blades and
consolidating large data warehousing databases and applications.
Which operating system would best fit this customers need?
A. Windows
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. OpenVMS
Answer: C

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NO.10 To simplify storage management for an HP Integrity rx2660 customer with limited system administration
staff, you design a SAN solution that automates repetitive array processes. On which HP StorageWorks
disk array system should you base your design?
A. EFS Clustered Gateway
B. EVA4400
C. MSA2000i
D. XP24000
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which HP Partitioning Continuum feature is available for an Integrity cell-based system in a Windows
Server 2008 environment?
A. hard partitions (nPars)
B. logical partitions
C. VMware Virtual Machines
D. Secure Resource Partitions
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are planning a BladeSystem solution for a customer who wants to populate a c7000 enclosure with
one Integrity BL860c server blade and one BL870c server blade. The customer also wants one SB600c
storage blade, and one StorageWorks Ultrium tape blade to provide direct attach tape backup capability
for the BL860c.
What must you remember when designing this configuration?
A. The tape blade must be adjacent to the BL860c server blade in the enclosure.
B. You must connect the SB600c storage blade and the Ultrium tape blade to the same server blade.
C. HP Data Protector Express Single Server Edition must be purchased separately.
D. You must install a PCIe Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card for HP BladeSystem c-Class to connect the
storage blade to the BL870c server blade.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
Which HP Integrity server blade is shown in the exhibit?
A. Integrity BL860c
B. Integrity BL870c
C. Integrity BL870c i2
D. Integrity BL890c i2
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your customer wants to purchase the newest Integrity servers that support Red Hat Enterprise Linux
or SuSE Linux Enterprise Server operating systems. Which Integrity servers should you recommend?
(Select two.)
A. Integrity BL860c
B. Integrity BL870c
C. Integrity BL870c i2
D. Integrity BL890c i2
Answer: AB

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NO.15 Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in
the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Your customer has asked you how HP virtual partitions compare with IBM virtual partitions.What can
you tell the customer about the problems IBM has with its virtual partitions.?
A. With IBM Virtual I/O (VIO), I/O partitions constitute a single point of failure.
B. AIX and POWER blades do not support virtual partitions.
C. IBM servers cannot manage virtual partitions and hard partitions with the same management software.
D. IBM partitioning dedicates I/O to each virtual partition, which results in slower I/O performance.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which functions are available through the Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI)? (Select two.)
A. controlling and managing the power utilization
B. configuring HP Integrated Lights-Out 3 (iLO 3) access
C. maintaining boot options
D. resetting the management processor to factory default
E. installing an operating system
Answer: CE

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NO.18 Which feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. memory scrubbing technology
B. address control parity
C. chip spare?like memory protection
D. dynamic page deallocation
Answer: C

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NO.19 The Itanium processor 9300 series delivers higher performance at peak workloads by increasing
voltage and frequencies beyond rated values without exceeding the processors thermal design power
envelope.
Which Itanium processor 9300 series feature delivers this capability?
A. event-switched Hyper-Threading
B. demand-based switching
C. Intel QuickPath Technology
D. Intel Turbo Boost Technology
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which features are new with Integrity rx2800 i2 servers? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium 9300 series quad-core processors
B. 128GB of memory maximum
C. iLO 3 management processors
D. eight internal 2.5?SFF hot-plug disk drives maximum
E. eight DIMM slots
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: HP0-Y30
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Networking Technologies HP0-Y30
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 You must configure SSH on an HP A7500 switch. Which item must be generated on the switch?
A. passphrase
B. shared secret
C. self-signed certificate
D. encryption keys
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which view is indicated by the following prompt on an HP A7500 switch? <A7500>
A. system
B. operator
C. user
D. console
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which A-Series switch is designed for the large data center and the enterprise core?
A. A5820
B. A7500
C. A9500
D. A12500
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have uploaded an application file named "A12500.bin" to an HP A12500 switch.
Which command ensures this file is used during the next boot cycle?
A. boot-file cf:/A12500.bin main
B. load appfile cf:/A12500.bin main
C. boot-loader file cf:/A12500.bin main
D. set boot file cf:/A12500.bin main
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch at
factory default settings.?
Switch# exit
A. The user is logged out of the console.
B. The privilege level moves from manager to operator.
C. Unsaved configuration changes are deleted.
D. The user exits from configuration mode.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement accurately describes the state of Gigabit Ethernet 3/0/12 in the HP A-Series switch
configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. The interface will be a tagged member of VLAN 12.
B. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 1.
C. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 12.
D. The interface will drop all incoming packets for VLAN 12.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which type of port can handle more than one untagged VLAN on an HP A-Series switch?
A. trunk
B. access
C. aggregated
D. hybrid
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a fit Access Point?
A. an AP that can provide WLAN services without a controller
B. an AP that has no intelligence and requires a wireless controller
C. an AP that can be deployed autonomously or with a controller
D. an AP that provides some intelligence under the management of a controller
Answer: D

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NO.9 You must configure VLANs and ports on an HP A7500 switch at default settings. What is the effect of
the following commands?
[SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port link-type trunk [SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port trunk permit vlan 100 101
A. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101 with 802.1Q tags. Traffic for VLAN 1 will be
untagged. Traffic for all other VLANs will be discarded.
B. The switch will add port 1/0/1 to a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) that is a tagged member of VLANs
100 and 101.
C. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101, but will discard traffic for all other VLANs.
D. The switch will forward VLAN 101 traffic with 802.1Q tags. VLAN 100 traffic will be untagged.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You must configure a port on an A5800 switch to support protocol-based VLANs and port-based
VLANs. Which port type supports this requirement?
A. hybrid
B. access
C. aggregated
D. trunk
E. tagged
Answer: A

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NO.11 You have entered the following command at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Switch(vlan-1)# ip
address 192.168.1.225/24
The switch's other VLAN and IP parameters are at factory defaults. While testing this configuration, you
find that the switch cannot ping a server located at 192.168.2.22. You have confirmed the server is up and
available. This server is located in a data center not directly connected to your switch.
What must you configure on the switch to enable connectivity between these two devices?
A. Add a default gateway.
B. Modify the IP address to 192.168.1.225/26.
C. Enable IP routing.
D. Add the server to allowed hosts list.
Answer: A

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NO.12 At the CLI of an HP E5406 zl switch, you have assigned ports A1-A4 to VLAN 70 as untagged
members. All other configuration parameters on the E5406 zl are at default settings. The E5406 zl is
connected through port B1 to an HP E8212 zl switch. The E8212 zl has been configured with an IP
interface associated with VLAN 70, and IP routing has been enabled. On the E5406 zl, what must you do
to enable the E8212 zl to act as default gateway for VLAN 70 clients?
A. Define an IP interface in VLAN 70.
B. Configure port B1 to be a member of VLAN 70.
C. Define the VLAN 70 IP address of the E8212 zl as the default gateway.
D. Add a static route to the E8212 to the E5406 zl route table.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You have initiated a console session on an HP A-Series switch at default settings. What is your
privilege level?
A. Visit (0)
B. Monitor (1)
C. System (2)
D. Manage (3)
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which HP E-Series switch features redundant management and fabric modules?
A. E2910 al
B. E8212 zl
C. E5412 zl
D. E4208 vl
Answer: B

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NO.15 You must define a hostname on an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A. manager
B. system
C. administrator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch?
E3500(vlan-44)#interface 23
A. The CLI displays the status of port 23.
B. Port 23 becomes a member of VLAN 44.
C. Port 23 is enabled.
D. The CLI enters the configuration context for port 23.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You must reset the startup configuration of an HP A-Series switch to factory defaults. Which CLI view
will enable you to complete this task?
A. manager view
B. global configuration view
C. system view
D. user view
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which HP E-Series switch models are fixed-port switches? (Select two.)
A. E8212 zl
B. E4204 vl
C. E6600-24G
D. E5406 zl
E. E3500-48G yl
Answer: CE

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NO.19 Which interface is available for managing A-Series switches at factory default settings?
A. Telnet
B. menu
C. console
D. web
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch(vlan-100)# end
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A. The CLI displays the Operator prompt.
B. The CLI displays the Manager prompt.
C. VLAN 100 is deleted from the switch.
D. The CLI displays the global configuration prompt.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z16
Exam Name: HP Selling HP E-Series Networking Solutions HP2-Z16
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NO.1 You are proposing an HP solution to a customer who has often complained about the expense of
network upgrades. What information can you provide the customer to address these concerns and
demonstrate that an HP solution is the best choice for the company?
A.Because the HP networking portfolio features proprietary technologies, these solutions are more
reliable than those offered by competitors.
B. The HP commitment to high-quality core devices eliminates costly upgrades for every edge device.
C. HP offers a standard trade-in program to replace end-of-life networking devices.
D. HP is committed to open standards, which ensures that its solutions remain valid in the future.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Why are voice applications called "performance sensitive"?
A.The user of a voice application notices the slightest delay.
B. Voice devices require more power than standard workstations.
C. Voice traffic requires high bandwidth.
D. The traffic for voice applications requires greater protection from threats than data applications.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are meeting with a customer who has complained about their very limited budget for the networking
infrastructure. What can you say to demonstrate that HP offers the best choice for them?
A.HP offers a broad networking portfolio with products that are recognized as the least expensive,
minimizing the networking investment.
B. HP networking solutions are designed to minimize "on-going" costs (OPEX), allowing them to shift the
budget toward investment (CAPEX).
C. HP networking solutions are designed to minimize networking investment (CAPEX), allowing them to
shift the budget toward maintaining the network (OPEX).
D. HP provides financial services that will solve the current budget issues.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has asked you why it is worthwhile to invest in intelligence at the network edge. Which
statements accurately describe the benefits of doing so.? (Select two.)
A.The network is scalable. The core is not overloaded when the edge is expanded.
B. Only the network edge is open-standards compliant and future-proof.
C. The network edge provides everything required for an advanced access control solution.
D. The network edge provides features that HP Security solutions can leverage.
E. The HP network edge devices are protected by the HP Lifetime Warranty, but the core switches are
not.
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 You are creating a networking solution proposal for a university. Which question helps you determine if
the network infrastructure must support traffic prioritization?
A.Does network access need to be available in older classroom buildings?
B. Does the university need to comply with any regulations and if so, do you need to prove compliance?
C. Do you plan to enhance the learning experience with interactive virtual classrooms?
D. Do faculty members need access to more resources than students (i.e., answer keys)?
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M33
Exam Name: HP HP Operations Orchestration 9.x Software HP0-M33
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is a flow?
A. a logically linked sequence of steps associated with operations
B. a running step
C. a sequence of commands
D. a sequence of operations communicating with the RAS server
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where is the debug tool located?
A. Tools menu in Studio
B. Flow authoring toolbar in Studio
C. Administration tab in Central
D. Flow library tab in Central
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where is the target repository set?
A. Welcome screen in Studio
B. Repository menu in Studio
C. Flow Library tab in Central.
D. My Changes/Checkouts in Studio
Answer: B

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NO.4 Where are view options found in Studio?
A. menu bar
B. Edit menu
C. flow authoring tool bar
D. Tools menu
Answer: C

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NO.5 What happens when you double-click on a step?
A. The sub-flow opens.
B. The operation opens.
C. The stepdebuggger opens.
D. The step inspector opens.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Operations in some Library sections may not be modified in their original location and must be copied
into a different location before they can be modified. Which icon indicates this behavior?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where can you create a flow inside Studio?
A. library folder
B. configuration folder
C. integrations folder
D. operations folder
Answer: A

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NO.8 A flow has a grey background in the design panel. What does this indicate?
A. It is checked into Central.
B. It is checked out of Central.
C. It is an old version.
D. It has been changed and the changes have not been saved.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How do you create documentation for multiple objects?
A. Compile a list of objects in the Create Documentation tool.
B. Select the folder that contains all the objects when creating the documentation.
C. Use a custom template from the <OO_HOME>/Studio/extra/template directory.
D. Combine the documentation files for each object into one folder.
Answer: B

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NO.10 When adding a filter to an operation, the Select Filter dialog box opens. This dialog box includes a drop
down menu with several types of filters that can be added to an operation. Some of these filters are
language specific. Which language has specific filters included in this drop down list?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. Perl
D. VBscript
Answer: D

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NO.11 Where does a flow author work with outputs?
A. library pane
B. operation properties window
C. debug tool
D. step inspector window
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are valid out-of-the-box operations you can create in Studio? (Select two.)
A. Web Service
B. Cmd
C. RAS Operation Monitor
D. Flow Run Summary Report
E. Rsh
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Where is the callout function located in Studio?
A. step palette
B. Library/Operations
C. Library/Utility Operations
D. debug window
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the default file type when generating documentation?
A. HTML
B. XML
C. PPT
D. PDF
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which criteria can be used to filter Run history reports?
A. run ID
B. variables
C. outputs
D. user
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y33
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Wireless Networks HP0-Y33
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NO.1 which feature should you enable to enhance Layer 2 (L2) roaming?
A. seamless roaming
B. rapid authentication
C. WPA2 Opportunistic Key Caching
D. single network AP hopping
Answer: C

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NO.2 In the configuration of an E-MSM760 controller, you find that the default VSC is access controlled.
Which statements are true about an inbound packet on the LAN port which does not have a VLAN tag?
(Select two.)
A. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
B. The packet is associated with that VSC if the packet has a known SSID tag.
C. The packet is dropped as the LAN port will only accept VLAN tagged packets.
D. The packet is associated with the default VSC if it has no matching SSID tag.
E. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 .What are the major benefits of creating a team of controllers? (Select two.)
A. controller redundancy
B. Flow support
C. local DHCP support
D. PPTP client and server support
E. single IP management of all team controllers
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 In your existing wireless network you have a variety of E-MSM controllers. Which products are capable
of supporting teaming? (Select two.)
A. E-MSM710
B. E-MSM730
C. E-MSM750
D. E-MSM760
E. E-MSM765zl
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 When configuring the MSM controller for a controlled mode network, at which point is the AP's VSC
egress VLAN configured?
A. when the Group is created
B. when the AP is synchronized with its Group
C. when the specified VLAN is created
D. when the VSC is bound to the Group
Answer: D

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NO.6 After completing the configuration and synchronization of all team members, you discover through your
initial testing that your APs cannot associate with your team controllers. To solve this problem what should
you check?
A. that your VSC DHCP parameters are set correctly
B. that you have enabled your local DHCP server on your Team Manager (controller)
C. that an external DHCP server exists and is operational on your network
D. that DHCP Relay has been configured on all your team members (controllers)
Answer: C

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NO.7 When Centralized Access Control is configured as Automatic, when is a user data tunnel created?
A. when more than one controller is on the network that has the same access control configuration
B. when tunnels are manually configured and available
C. when IPSec is set up between two controllers
D. when a synchronized AP and its controller are on different subnets
Answer: D

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NO.8 On a VSC, which Traffic Type options can be specified for egress VLANs? (Select three.)
A. default gateway traffic
B. IP filtered traffic
C. authenticated traffic
D. untagged traffic
E. intercepted traffic
F. unauthenticated traffic
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.9 An HP E-MSM760 Controller receives untagged traffic on its LAN port from a wireless client associated
with an access point from another manufacturer. In a WLAN configured with VSCs 1-4, which VSC will be
selected to pass this traffic?
A. VSC 2
B. VSC 3
C. VSC 4
D. default VSC
Answer: D

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NO.10 When would the IP address of the Internet port on an MSM controller be set to "No Address"?
A. when NAT is enabled
B. when only authenticated traffic is passing through the Internet port
C. when NAT is disabled
D. when only VLAN traffic is passing through the Internet port
Answer: D

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NO.11 A financial institution needs to deploy 80 access points in their new building. Since the institution is not
interested in purchasing additional wired switches for their LAN infrastructure, which solution should be
recommended to manage the access points?
A. HP A3000-24G-PoE+ Wireless Switch
B. HP A-WX5002 Access Controller
C. HP A-WX5004 Access Controller
D. HP A7500/E7900 Access Controller Module
Answer: C

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NO.12 In order to create a new VLAN in an MSM controller configuration, which path should you take to
access the correct screen?
A. VSCs>[select a VSC]>VSC Profile
B. VSCs>VSC bindings>VLANs
C. Controller>Management>VLANs
D. Controller>Network>Ports
Answer: D

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NO.13 Your controller's Team Manager has suffered a catastrophic failure and an Interim Manager has been
selected. Which action is required to allow the Interim Manager to distribute a new software release to its
team members?
A. The Interim Manager is promoted to Team Manager status.
B. The Interim Manager is rebooted and reconfigured as the new Team Manager.
C. The Interim Manager promotes another team member to Team Manager and the new TeamManager
uploads the new software to the team members.
D. Each Team Member is manually upgraded from the Interim Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of E-MSM controllers that can be configured into a single team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
You have deployed a guest wireless service in the reception area of a marketing firm. The clients
associated with the guest service should be assigned to VLAN 10. When you test the configuration,
clients are being assigned IP addresses in the 192.168.0.0 subnet. You view the access controller
configuration shown in the exhibit.
Which command resolves the issue by correctly associating VLAN 10 with the appropriate interface.?
A. [sysname-wlan-st-1] port access vlan 10
B. [sysname-WLAN-ESS1] port access vlan 10
C. [sysname-GigabitEthernet1/0/1] port access vlan 10
D. [sysname-Vlan-interface10] port access vlan 10
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y40
Exam Name: HP network infrastruclure security HP0-Y40
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which B-Series Switch license provides the customer with early fault detection in their SAN?
A. Adaptive Networking
B. Extended Fabric
C. Fabric Watch
D. Data Center Fabric Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer is evaluating resource management software that is capable of efficient SAN and
end-to-end performance management for HP EVA storage arrays. Which HP software solution provides
this capability?
A. HP Insight Control
B. Data Center Fabric Manager Enterprise software
C. HP Storage Essentials SRM software
D. HP SAN Visibility
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is searching for a storage solution that provides combined FC/iSCSI connectivity paired
with target-based management at a low-price entry point. Which product meets these requirements?
A. HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Cluster
B. HP StorageWorks P4000 G2 SAN Solutions
C. HP StorageWorks P2000 G3 Modular Smart Array Systems
D. HP StorageWorks XP24000/XP20000 Disk Array
Answer: C

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NO.4 A consultant presents an HP NAS solution based on two X1600 Network Storage System to the CIO
and CEO of an SMB customer with 110 IT seats. In addition to CIFS services, the customer wants to use
this storage system as iSCSI storage for existing Microsoft Windows SQL database servers.
Which benefit of the proposed solution should be presented to the CEO during this meeting?
A. reducing the Recovery Time Objective for file services in case of disk failure
B. minimizing power and cooling costs by using single-power supplies per system
C. reducing the Recovery Point Objective for databases when using snapshot functionality
D. minimizing rackspace by using a storage server with 3U per system
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer's new business requires a flexible SAN solution, which can start at 20 device ports and
grow up to 120 device ports in a single stack per fabric. It should also include network management and
storage provisioning from a single screen. Which HP product line is the preferred solution?
A. HP StorageWorks DC04 SAN Director
B. Cisco MDS 9134 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. HP StorageWorks SN6000 8Gb Fibre Channel Switch
D. HP StorageWorks 8/80 SAN Switch
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer needs a synchronous replication solution to a remote site at a very low-price entry point.
Which product meets the customer's requirements?
A. HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Cluster
B. HP StorageWorks 2000fc G2 Modular Smart Array
C. HP P4000 G2 Multi-Site SAN
D. HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)
Answer: C

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NO.7 In being able to address a customer's business needs, a Converged Infrastructure requires more than
just some products connected loosely or in partnership with other companies. HP is uniquely positioned to
deliver on a full version of the Converged Infrastructure. What are some aspects of the Converged
Infrastructure that give HP a significant advantage in the marketplace? (Select two.)
A. power and cooling technologies
B. SAN bridges and routers
C. flexible servers and storage
D. data center design methodology
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A customer owns storage arrays from multiple vendors. The customer wants to improve storage
capacity utilization and their ability to apply point-in-time copies of volumes that span multiple arrays.
Which solution meets these requirements.?
A. HP X9000 scale-out solution
B. HP P4000 G2 Storage Cluster architecture
C. HP StorageWorks EVA
D. HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)
Answer: D

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NO.9 A consultant designs a disaster tolerance and disaster recovery solution in a Windows environment
using Enterprise Virtual Arrays (EVAs) and Cluster Extension EVAs (CLXs).Why should a majority node
be set or a fileshare witness be integrated in the design?
A. to verify that source and destination copies are identical
B. to prevent systems of LUN mapping changes in case of failover
C. to provide protection against split-brain situations
D. to guarantee the highest possible data consistency in the environment
Answer: C

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NO.10 A consultant speaks to the CIO of an automotive manufacturing company. The CIO reveals the
company's plan to open a new data center to handle an expected increase in sales in the coming year.
The CIO also mentions that TCO is important to the CEO, and the CIO does not want to replace
components when expanding the data center. Which resource is available to analyze the expected cost of
the storage for the new data center and provide financial justification?
A. Business Value Tool
B. Alinean ROI Tool
C. SalesBuilder for Windows
D. StorageWorks TCO Calculator
Answer: B

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NO.11 A flower distribution company purchased an ERP solution a year ago that included Windows servers,
two entry level SAN switches and a P2000 storage array. This company recently acquired another
business of similar size that uses the same ERP software, but with MSA2000fc G2 storage. A consultant
is engaged to recommend how to consolidate these two environments that utilizes both storage arrays.
Which resource provides compatibility and support guidelines for this situation?
A. HP SAN Design Guide
B. HP EBS Design Guide
C. HP Solution Sizer Tool
D. HP StorageWorks Sizer Tool
Answer: A

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NO.12 A consultant is designing a SAN solution that includes an EVA6400 and an X3800 Network Storage
Gateway. The customer wants optimal utilization of their storage capacity. Which add-on software
provides this functionality?
A. Business Copy EVA
B. Replication Solution Manager
C. Cluster Extension EVA
D. Dynamic Capacity Management
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer wants to reduce the total cost of ownership of their storage infrastructure by
implementing a tiered storage approach. Which product feature of the SAN Virtualization Services
Platform (SVSP) environment allows implementation of data life cycle management policies?
A. SVSP Business Copy
B. SVSP Thin Provisioning
C. SVSP Volume Manager
D. SVSP Continuous Access
Answer: C

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NO.14 The CIO of a regional banking company indicates that the bank needs to open a new data center to
handle an increase in business and to properly protect the data of their customers. The new data center
will initially have constraints on the amount of floor space available. In choosing the size of servers and
storage, the customer has asked for both a flexible and efficient space configuration. In addition, they
want to be able to combine resources to support workloads of varying sizes and types.
Which type of servers and storage are recommended?
A. ProLiant DL Series servers and blade storage
B. ProLiant BL Series servers and blade storage
C. ProLiant BL Series servers and XP storage
D. ProLiant DL Series servers and P2000 storage
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer provides performance and future growth requirements for a new SAN they want to purchase.
Which HP tool can be used to generate a list of components and a topology diagram for a SAN that meets
these requirements?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. SAN Designer
C. SAN Visibility
D. SAN Solution Sizer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B71
Exam Name: HP HP Secure Prescription Printing Solutions Sales HP2-B71
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which processes does e-prescribing involve?
A. Facsimile
B. direct computer-to-computer transfer of data
C. emailing
D. prescription encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where does the healthcare industry rank in the amount of paper used by an industry?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. fourth
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are key business drivers in the healthcare industry? (Select two.)
A. containing costs
B. complying with insurance company paperwork
C. reducing the number of medical errors
D. providing healthcare for the uninsured
E. aging clinical staffs
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What is the most common method of obtaining a fraudulent prescription, according to the National
Association of Chain Drug Stores?
A. altering a handwritten prescription
B. doctor shopping
C. stealing a preprinted prescription pad
D. retrieving prescriptions from the garbage
Answer: B

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NO.5 How does the United States Government encourage the use of electronic medical records
(EMRs)?
A. by providing tax breaks for facilities that use EMR systems
B. by providing financial incentives to facilities under the economic stimulus package
C. by directing Medicare patients to facilities with EMRsystems
D. by certifying only facilities using EMR systems
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E18
Exam Name: HP HP Service Sales Consultant HP2-E18
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which service is bundled with VMware licenses?
A. no service is bundled
B. 9x5 support
C. 24x7 support
D. HP Installation and Startup Service
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement best describes a customer benefit of choosing HP Proactive Essentials Services?
A. provides a tailor-made service for the customer
B. decreases outages caused by software defects
C. provides cost-effective management with ongoing advice
D. keeps the hardware and software running and maintains IT availabilityobjectives
Answer: B

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NO.3 HP currently employs how many service professionals in how many countries worldwide?
A. less than 49,000 in 70 countries
B. more than 69,000 in 150 countries
C. more than 69,000 in 170 countries
D. more than 96,000 in 150 countries
Answer: C

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NO.4 When justifying the investment in services to a customer, which response is considered a best practice?
A. Provide lots of industry examples of where HP is number one.
B. Ensure that the customer understands all of the features of the servicesbeing offered.
C. Only include services in the sales cycle once the customer has decidedon the hardware and software
solution.
D. Take a solutions selling approach to assure that the relationship betweenbusiness goals and the
impact of IT on those goals is understood.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which services are included in the Virtualization Services portfolio? (Select three.)
A. education
B. data migration
C. telephone support
D. performance assessment E. capacity planner assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 What is the best question to open a dialogue with a customer that is in a changing IT environment?
A. How do you staff for special projects?
B. Ideally, how many additional staff do you plan to recruit?
C. What kind of changes is the business asking you to make?
D. What are your plans to achieve the next level of availability?
Answer: C

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NO.7 When is the best time to position HP Deployment Services to your customer?
A. at the start of the sales process that involves new hardware
B. after new hardware is delivered and the customer experiences technicaldifficulties
C. during the configuration process when HP Installation Services are addedto the order
D. after a hardware order is finalized and the customer starts to plandeployment activities
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why would you suggest the HP Mission Critical and Proactive Services to your customers?
A. They are high-cost services and will help you meet your numbers.
B. It is the only way you will meet the new Penetration Rate Index (PRI)commitment.
C. They are a way of guaranteeing that a customer never has any moreunplanned downtime.
D. They can help reduce a customer's exposure and vulnerability and protectagainst costly downtime
risks.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Where do HP Education Services belong within the Business Critical Server (BCS) support services
portfolio?
A. referral services
B. premium services
C. value-added services
D. basic support services
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can HP ProLiant Services help reduce a customer's overall cost? (Select three.)
A. protects business data
B. minimizes the risk of downtime
C. results in 80% less deployment costs
D. optimizes power management in the IT environment
E. decreases IT maintenance and improves operational efficiency
Answer: B,C,E

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