2013年12月31日星期二

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Exam Code: E20-545
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are the available Usermapper roles?
A. Primary, secondary, and client
B. Primary, local, and remote
C. Local, remote, and client
D. Active, passive, and standby
Answer: A

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NO.2 What monitoring option is used for file system and network performance?
A. Background Tasks for File
B. Statistics for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Notification Logs for File
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to EMC best practices, how many secondary Usermappers are recommended in a multiple
VNX array environment?
A. One per VNX array
B. One per Data Mover
C. One per additional VNX array
D. One per VNX environment
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which RAID type can be expanded?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 6
Answer: A

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NO.5 When using the provisioning wizard, how many RAID group options are available?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bits
B. 1024 bits
C. 2048 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which drive type benefits least from enabling FAST Cache?
A. Flash
B. NL-SAS
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a valid statement about the characteristics of certificates on the VNX system?
A. Default certificates are in place for SP A, SP B, Control Station(s), and Data Movers
B. Default certificates area self-signed 1024-bit RSA keys
C. All certificates are self-signed
D. Default certificates are self-signed 2048-bit RSA keys
Answer: D

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NO.9 What monitoring option is used to generate file-related notifications based on a user-defined threshold?
A. Notification Logs for File
B. Background Tasks for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Statistics for File
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are proposing a storage solution using a VNX system. What will you tell the storage administrator
about the default setting for VNX IP address filtering?
A. Access is limited to a single Unisphere client.
B. IP address filtering does not restrict any access.
C. IP address filtering is not installed by default.
D. IP address filtering prevents all communications until the VNX system is configured.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are supporting a customer whose VNX hostname has recently changed. Immediately after this
change, the VNX administrators begin to receive certificate errors when they attempt to connect to the
array. You need to advise them on how to regenerate the Control Station ¯ s ce rtifi ca t e au t ho rit y and w b
server certificates.
Which command should be used?
A. server_certificate
B. server_security
C. nas_ca_certificate
D. nas_license
Answer: C

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NO.12 What command produces audit summaries for the Control Station?
A. /sbin/aureport
B. /sbin/ausearch
C. /sbin/auditctl
D. /sbin/service
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which protocol does VNX support for encrypted network management activities.?
A. SSH
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.14 In order to ensure that role-based access is enforced, the VNX storage domain has implemented two
administrative groups called Auditors and Storage Admins. One of the administrators is a member of both
groups. What access to objects will that administrator inherit?
A. The least restrictive privilege established by the two groups
B. The most restrictive privilege established by the two groups
C. The first group that the administrator joined
D. The last group that the administrator joined
Answer: A

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NO.15 When generating a Certificate Signing Request (CSR), what is a valid statement about the certificate?
A. The Public key must be an RSA key.
B. The certificate must be set to expire within 20 years.
C. The subject ¯ s O r gan i za ti ona l U n it N a m e m us t be se t t o VNX .
D. The subject ¯ s co mm on na m e m us t be se t t o t he C on tr o l S t a ti o ¡ ¯s IP ad dr es s
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-891
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer recently integrated EMC Avamar into their existing NetWorker datazone. After
creating a deduplication client and defining the NetWorker deduplication node, the backup is
started. However, the backup failed.
What must be done to perform a successful backup?
A. Create a local AFTD on the storage node to store deduplication metadata
B. Create an AFTD on the Avamar server to store deduplication metadata
C. Create an AFTD to store the deduplication indexes
D. Create an AFTD to store the additional bootstrap information
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is planning to use EMC NetWorker integrated with Data Domain to backup their
enterprise. Data Domain will be used to replicate backups to an offsite location to satisfy regulatory
requirements. The customer is concerned about the difficulty in managing their backups and
backup clones with two interfaces.
What could be done to simplify the management of backups and clones?
A. Configure DD Boost with NetWorker and use clone-controlled replication.
B. Configure pre and post scripts to handle the cloning.
C. Create one backup job for cloning and one additional job for local copies.
D. Create scripts to run through the CLI to handle daily cloning.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An existing EMC Data Domain customer wants to know the way to integrate Data Domain
with RMAN to their tape library. How would this integration take place?
A. Use RMAN and Media Manager Layer to backup the application
B. Use RMAN with NFS to write to tape
C. Use RMAN with DD Boost to move data to the tape library
D. Use RMAN with dNFS to write to the tape library
Answer: A

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NO.4 An EMC customer is currently backing up their Microsoft Exchange database to an EMC
Avamar server. The backups are setup to full on Friday, skip on Sunday, and only
transaction logs backed up the rest of the week. The customer would like to integrate Data Domain
to Avamar and run the database backups to the Data Domain system.
If a Data Domain system is deployed on Sunday, which type of backup runs on the following Monday?
A. Full database backup
B. Transaction logs backup
C. Backups will be skipped
D. Level 1 backup of the database
Answer: A

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NO.5 While installing an EMC Avamar deduplication node in a NetWorker backup solution, the
Microsoft Windows client backup jobs fail to run. Which process should be running on the client
during the backup?
A. nsravtar
B. nsravamar
C. nsrim
D. nsrndmpsv
Answer: A

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to add their new Microsoft SharePoint distributed farm to
their backup environment. The farm contains three servers. One server contains the web front-end
and the other two servers each contain two SQL databases.
How is the number of the client resources determined?
A. One resource for each server in the farm
B. One resource for each SQL database in the farm and one for the web front-end server
C. Only one resource for the entire farm
D. One resource for each SQL database in the farm
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has an EMC Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity.
The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
What will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Decrease the cleaning frequency
C. Increase the snapshot expiration period
D. Increase the number of streams
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has implemented EMC Data Domain Boost for Oracle RMAN software in their
environment and are successfully backing up several Oracle servers. Backups are directed to a local
Data Domain system and a second Data Domain system was configured at their disaster recovery
site as a target for replication.
What needs to be done to create copies of the backup data on the remote system that are tracked
and recoverable by RMAN?
A. Modify the RMAN script to include backup copies
B. Configure directory replication between the Data Domain systems
C. Configure Mtree replication between the Data Domain systems
D. Create a second RMAN script for the second Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.9 An EMC NetWorker customer has just started running backups of their new Microsoft
SharePoint distributed farm. They are concerned that their web applications are not being backed
up.
What can you tell the customer about backing up web applications?
A. Web applications are backed up with the corresponding content database
B. Add the web application name to the save set field for the client hosting the content database
C. Create a separate client resource for each web application
D. Web applications must be backed up with a file system backup method
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are planning an MS SQL backup solution for a customer using EMC NetWorker and NMM
without a proxy client. Which user privilege must be configured on NetWorker?
A. Add the NMM client to the NetWorker Administrator user group
B. Add the NetWorker Administrator to the NMM remote user setting
C. Add the NMM client to the MS Windows administrators user group
D. Add the NMM client to the Operators user group
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 312-38
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Network Security Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 330 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 John works as a C programmer. He develops the following C program:
#include <stdlib.h>
#include <stdio.h>
#include <string.h>
int buffer(char *str) {
char buffer1[10];
strcpy(buffer1, str);
return 1;
}
int main(int argc, char *argv[]) {
buffer (argv[1]);
printf("Executed\n");
return 1;
}
His program is vulnerable to a __________ attack.
A. SQL injection
B. Denial-of-Service
C. Buffer overflow
D. Cross site scripting
Answer: C

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The ____________________risk analysis process analyzes
the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value.
Answer: quantitative

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NO.3 In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The router does not have a configuration file.
B. There is a need to set operating parameters.
C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.
D. The router does not find a valid operating system image.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following is a protocol that describes an approach to providing "streamlined" support of
OSI application services on top of TCP/IP-based networks for some constrained environments?
A. Network News Transfer Protocol
B. Lightweight Presentation Protocol
C. Internet Relay Chat Protocol
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following types of VPN uses the Internet as its main backbone, allowing users, customers,
and branch offices to access corporate network resources across various network architectures?
A. PPTP VPN
B. Remote access VPN
C. Extranet-based VPN
D. Intranet-based VPN
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to
detect port scans and other suspicious traffic?
A. Nmap
B. Hping
C. NetRanger
D. PSAD
Answer: D

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NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A _______________device is used for uniquely recognizing
humans based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits.
Answer: biometric

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NO.8 Which of the following is a process that detects a problem, determines its cause, minimizes the
damages, resolves the problem, and documents each step of response for future reference?
A. Incident response
B. Incident handling
C. Incident management
D. Incident planning
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is designed to detect the unwanted presence of fire by monitoring
environmental changes associated with combustion?
A. Fire sprinkler
B. Fire suppression system
C. Fire alarm system
D. Gaseous fire suppression
Answer: C

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NO.10 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the terms to match with their descriptions.?
Answer:

NO.11 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using a tool to crack the wireless encryption keys. The description of
the tool is as follows:
Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. PsPasswd
B. Kismet
C. AirSnort
D. Cain
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log
traffic passing over a digital network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. Wireless sniffer
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Performance Monitor
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________________ is typically carried out by a remote
attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it is not authorized or allowed.
Answer: Network reconnaissance

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NO.14 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ------------------------------- is the complete network configuration
and information toolkit that uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast
and efficient.
Answer: NetRanger

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NO.15 Which of the following is an intrusion detection system that monitors and analyzes the internals of a
computing system rather than the network packets on its external interfaces?
A. IPS
B. HIDS
C. DMZ
D. NIDS
Answer: B

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NO.16 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The _____________is an application layer protocol that is used
between workstations and routers for transporting SNA/NetBIOS traffic over TCP sessions.
Answer: DCAP

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NO.17 Which of the following is the practice of sending unwanted e-mail messages, frequently with
commercial content, in large quantities to an indiscriminate set of recipients? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. E-mail spam
B. Junk mail
C. Email spoofing
D. Email jamming
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which of the following protocols is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a
network of autonomous systems?
A. IGMP
B. ICMP
C. EGP
D. OSPF
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are an Administrator for a network at an investment bank. You are concerned about individuals
breeching your network and being able to steal data before you can detect their presence and shut down
their access. Which of the following is the best way to address this issue?
A. Implement a strong password policy.
B. Implement a strong firewall.
C. Implement a honey pot.
D. Implement network based anti virus.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program
in the host that is sending the segment?
A. Sequence Number
B. Header Length
C. Acknowledgment Number
D. Source Port Address
Answer: D

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NO.1 How many LUNs are required for the Write intent Log (WIL)?
A. one per array
B. two per array
C. one per each mirrored LUN
D. two per each mirrored LUN
Answer: B

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NO.2 In a Dell / EMC only Storage Area Network (SAN), SAN Copy requires which three of
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A. Access Logix must be running on all participating storage arrays.
B. SnapView or MirrorView must be installed on the storage array running SAN Copy.
C. Either the Source or Destination logical units must reside on an array running SAN
copy
D. The Navishere Host Agent does not need to be installed on all hosts that own LUNs to
be SAN copied.
E. All SAN Copy ports must be zoned correctly, in order for SAN copy to have access to
these storage arrays.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.3 Which three statements about Navisphere Analyzer are correct? (choose three)
A. Navisphere Analyzer is included within Navisphere Manager
B. Navisphere Analyzer is optional software that can track performance trends on Dell /
EMC storage arrays.
C. Navisphere Analyzer allows you to automatically record, capture and display
performance data metrics.
D. Navisphere Analyzer can fine tune parameters of storage arrays, Identifying potential
bottlenecks, such as spindle count starvation within a RAID configuration and read/write
cache adjustments to increase performance.
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.4 Which LUN duplication method would have the least initial performance impact on a
source LUN To create and be the easiest and least costly to implement?
A. use SAN copy to copy the source LUN
B. mirror the source LUN to a second host
C. clone the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
Answer: D

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NO.5 SAN Copy can be configured to
A. have simultaneous sessions between multiple storage systems
B. provide synchronous mirroring between multiple storage systems
C. allows UNIX hosts to copy LUNs to be accessed by Windows hosts
D. create copies of Source LUNs that are only 20% of the original size
Answer: A

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NO.1 Given: You were previously on-site at ABC's facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The
WLAN has been deployed according to your recommendations and you are on-site again to perform a
network validation.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be
performed? (Choose two)
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Hidden node analysis to identify and relocate existing hidden nodes
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 What WLAN system feature is required to produce a scenario with the following configuration on a
single access point? (Choose 2)
1. SSID = Guest / BSSID = AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA /
VLAN = 22 / Subnet = 192.168.22.0 / RF Channel = 6
2. SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 33 / Subnet = 192.168.33.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type A
SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 44 / Subnet = 192.168.44.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type B
A. Multiple WLAN Profiles
B. Call Admission Control
C. Virtual Cell with SCA
D. Access Categories
E. User-based authentication
F. Dual-radio AP hardware
G. Integrated DHCP server
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for
unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver's antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is
clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency
and distance.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What answers correctly complete the following sentence?
____________ and ____________ carrier sense functions are used to determine whether the wireless
medium is idle or busy. (Choose 2)
A. Passive
B. Pseudo-random
C. Virtual
D. Active
E. Physical
F. Interframe
G. Vector
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 When replacing the antenna of a WLAN device with a similar antenna type that has a higher passive
gain, what antenna characteristic will decrease?
A. Beamwidth
B. Range
C. Active gain
D. Receive sensitivity
E. Fresnel Zone size
Answer: A

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NO.6 What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Given: You are an independent contractor, hired to perform an indoor site survey and network design
for ABC Hotel. The network will support both hotel staff and guest users. You are interviewing the network
manager to determine business, performance, and security requirements for the future 802.11 WLAN.
What questions should you ask the IT manager? (Choose two)
A. What data cabling is currently installed in the rooms and throughout the hotel?
B. How much RF loss do you expect between hotel rooms?
C. Where are the RF dead zones located within the facility?
D. What types of applications will be used by the hotel staff?
E. Are there any radar systems in use at the hotel that would conflict with the WLAN?
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
Answer: D

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NO.9 Given: You are the network administrator for ABC Company. Your manager has recently attended a
wireless security seminar. The seminar speaker taught that a wireless network could be hidden from
potential intruders if you disabled the broadcasting of the SSID in Beacons and configured the access
points not to respond to Probe Request frames that have a null SSID field.
Your manager suggests implementing these security practices. What response should you give to this
suggestion? (Choose two)
A. Any 802.11 protocol analyzer can see the SSID in clear text in frames other than Beacons and Probe
Response frames. This negates any security benefit of trying to hide the SSID in Beacons and Probe
Response frames.
B. This security practice prevents manufacturers' client utilities from detecting the SSID. As a result, the
SSID cannot be obtained by attackers, except through social engineering, guessing, or use of a WIPS.
C. Although it does not benefit the security posture, hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response
frames can be helpful for preventing some users (such as guests) from attempting to connect to the
corporate network.
D. Any tenants in the same building using advanced penetration testing tools will be able to obtain the
SSID by exploiting WPA EAPOL-Key exchanges. This poses an additional risk of exposing the WPA key.
E. To improve security by hiding the SSID, the AP and client stations must both be configured to remove
the SSID from association request and response frames. Most WLAN products support this.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 What component of the 802.11 standard allows stations to reserve access to the RF medium for a
specified period of time?
A. Long slot times
B. DTIM Interval
C. Listen Interval
D. Probe Request frames
E. RTS or CTS frames
Answer: E

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NO.11 Given:
Network users and IT personnel at a large machinery manufacturer have been discussing the potential
uses and benefits of implementing an indoor WLAN. The network administrator and network manager
have requested a meeting of senior management personnel to discuss a WLAN implementation before
taking any site survey or implementation steps. The first order of discussion in the meeting is corporate
policy concerning implementation and use of WLAN technology.
What specific topics are appropriate in this policy meeting? (Choose two)
A. Vendor hardware recommendations
B. Business justification
C. User productivity impact
D. Antenna types
E. Obtaining permits and zoning requirements
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 During the discovery and connectivity process, client and AP stations exchange information about their
supported data rates. After the association, how do client and AP stations select the supported data rate
that will be used to send an 802.11 data frame?
A. During the association, the client and AP agree to use the same transmit rate, but either station can
request a change at any time after the association.
B. The client and AP each choose the optimal data rate to use independently of one another, based on
their own experience of the RF link.
C. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the AP determines the data rate that will be
used by each client station in the BSS.
D. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the client determines the data rate that it will
use and the data rate that the AP will use when communicating to the client.
E. The client and AP may use a different transmit rates, but the transmit rate is determined by the peer
station, based on the peer's experience of the RF link.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose
4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.14 Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre-deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC's facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC's existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company's security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Why is it recommended for a wireless network administrator to disable 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps data rates
on the WLAN infrastructure? (Choose two)
A. To improve capacity in the BSS
B. To reduce the size of the AP's effective service area
C. To prevent 802.11b devices from associating
D. To maximize the range of the highest data rates
E. To prevent VoWiFi multicast frames
F. To enable support for long preambles
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment supporting four bands in the 5 GHz range
(UNII 1, UNII 2, UNII 2e, and UNII 3). DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory domain.
Band steering is also enabled to encourage dual-band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity.
Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi client devices will move back and forth
between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the user roams throughout the building. All APs have 2.4 and 5 GHz radios
enabled.
This "band hopping" behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable. What is the most likely cause
of the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48
in UNII 1.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call
capacity and lower latency than 5 GHz.
C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it
moves through the network.
D. The client's band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75-85%
of client devices to 2.4 GHz.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 Given:
ABC Company performs top-secret government contract work and has recently purchased an
802.11 Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) to enforce their "NO WIRELESS" network security
policy.
What attack type cannot be recognized by the WIPS?
A. Deauthentication
B. MAC Spoofing
C. Protocol Jamming
D. Eavesdropping
E. RF Jamming
Answer: D

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NO.19 What statement best describes the manual RF site survey report?
A. It is a series of notes taken during the interview with the network manager and given to the site survey
project manager.
B. It is a one-page network inspection summary used to create a certificate of network compliance.
C. It contains the results from the RF coverage, capacity, and interference analysis.
D. It is an internal document used by the site surveying firm for network deployment, and is not usually
shown to the client.
E. It states the customer requirements, business justification, and a detailed budget for the WLAN.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes from one medium to another medium of
a different density?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C

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NO.1 Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B

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NO.2 At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers
because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that
since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room.
If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job
requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective
brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y
computers present to the user.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying
attention or participating. Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?
A. Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B. Measurable results from summative assessments
C. Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D. Comparing learner performance with other learners
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning
stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements BEST describes the value of using a variety of question types during
instruction?
A. Regularly asking questions during a course helps to identify those that are paying attention.
B. Effective use of questions will enhance learners' conceptual understanding; encourage deep thinking
and meaningful participation.
C. Using a variety of questions during instruction prevents anyone in the group from becoming
disinterested with the same question types.
D. Questions asked often during a course will keep learners engaged, it is not important if they do not
know the correct answer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the
question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the
skill the instructor is demonstrating?
A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B. Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C. Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners
it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught. Which of the following
should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has
asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting. Which
of the following should the instructor do?
A. Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B. Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C. Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D. Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts
Answer: C

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NO.11 An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems
that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not
work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor.?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D

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NO.12 An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the
following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D

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NO.13 An instructor uses multiple forms of media to help the class understand a difficult topic. Unfortunately
learners are still having a hard time with the concept. Noticing difficulty, the instructor creates another
learning tool to explain the topic another way. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the
instructor is using?
A. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion
B. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training
C. Adapt learning methods as intended by the course designers
D. Enhance, substitute or create media as appropriate
Answer: D

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NO.14 During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the
instructor do FIRST?
A. Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B. Move the class to another room.
C. Take a class break and find another projector.
D. Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.
Answer: A

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NO.15 An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning
style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?
A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B. Administer an exam to verify learner's knowledge of the material.
C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.
Answer: D

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NO.16 While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following
BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning
objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A

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NO.17 An instructor is leading a virtual class when several learners start having significant bandwidth issues
that cause them to drop out of the live session. Which of the following represents the BEST solution to the
problem?
A. Inform the learners that most of the same material will be covered in the next class session.
B. Have the learners watch a recorded session of the class.
C. Request that those learners with bandwidth issues be moved to an in-person live class,
D. Cancel the current session and schedule a make-up class.
Answer: B

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NO.18 An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather.
The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A

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NO.19 After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations
of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?
A. It measures the application of the skills taught.
B. It validates the quality of the course material.
C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware
material used during a class?
A. Design of the courseware materials
B. Accuracy of the courseware
C. Cost of the courseware
D. Instructor's use of the courseware
Answer: B

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NO.1 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.3 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.4 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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NO.6 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

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NO.8 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.12 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

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NO.14 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.15 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.17 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following will fix a laptop with dark irregular lines that run the width of the display in all
video modes?
A. Perform a System Restore
B. Replace the video capture card
C. Change the resolution to 800 x 600
D. Replace the LCD
Answer: D

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NO.2 A technician plugs a USB device into the computer. The system tray displays a message that reports
the device is installed, but may not work properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the
message?
A. The device needs a firmware update.
B. The device needs an updated driver installed.
C. The plugged in device is too slow for the USB port speed.
D. The device is incompatible with the installed version of Windows.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A technician needs to change the process priority of a background program. Which of the following tools
is BEST for performing this function.?
A. MSCONFIG
B. Computer Management
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 A computer running Windows 7 will not boot up. A user is receiving an ® I nva li d boo t d i s
error.
Which of the following is the cause of this error?
A. The BOOT.INI file is not found.
B. The Windows registry is corrupt.
C. There is a CD-ROM in the drive.
D. The floppy drive is disconnected.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be
used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in
the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?
A. The document is set to hidden.
B. The document is locked.
C. The document was saved as a system document.
D. The document is owned by the first user.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer requires a shock resistant mass storage device in their PC. Which of the following drives
should the technician install?
A. Hard disk
B. Solid state
C. Floppy
D. Tape
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network
range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?
A. Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B. Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C. Upgrade the out-of-range users
SSID searching software.
D. Enable network sharing on the users
computers that are within range.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A user powers up their desktop PC, and instead of booting up normally, the user is taken into the BIOS
setup.
Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The MBR is corrupt
B. NTLDR cannot be found by the system
C. A faulty CMOS battery
D. The BIOS requires a firmware update
Answer: C

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NO.9 After powering on a workstation, an intrusion alert is displayed indicating that the case has been opened.
How would a technician reset the alert?
A. Change the setting in the registry
B. Change the setting in the BIOS
C. Change the setting in the DOS startup files
D. Change the setting in the Control Panel
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician wants to setup hardware RAID 5 for a Windows 7 computer to prevent data loss. In which
of the following locations would the technician MOST likely change the setting?
A. Disk Manager
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Boot DVD
D. The BIOS
Answer: D

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NO.11 A user is working in a small office home office (SOHO), running Windows XP, and cannot connect to
the Internet. The office uses a router that is setup as a DHCP server. The technician types IPCONFIG in
the command prompt, the following appears:
IP address 0.0.0.0
Gateway 0.0.0.0
Subnet Mask 0.0.0.0
DNS 0.0.0.0
Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. Network adapter drivers
B. Router settings
C. Network cable
D. Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer has a wireless router installed in their home office. The customer is having issues with
signal strength at the opposite end of the house. Which of the following is the BEST option to increase the
signal strength?
A. Install a high gain antennafocused towards the office wall
B. Run CAT5e cable to all of the roomsthat have poor signal strength
C. Install a wireless repeater at the far end of the house
D. Install a second wired router in the far end of the house
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).
A. TELNET
B. SSH
C. POP3
D. FTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important
consideration?
A. Operating system type of the connected PCs
B. Location of the wireless router
C. Number of PCs that will access the network
D. Number of available Ethernet ports on the router
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following characteristics of Windows Gadgets is accurate?
A. Windows Gadgets are available in all versions of Windows since XP.
B. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista and Windows 7.
C. Windows Gadgets were introduced in Windows 7.
D. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following locations would a technician use to add a Windows 7 computer to a domain?
A. System Properties
B. Windows Defender
C. Network and Sharing Center
D. Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.17 A technician is replacing the motherboard on a laptop. Which of the following is the MOST important
step during the disassembly process?
A. Place all of the screws in a container with other parts.
B. Keep the power supply plugged in to ground the system.
C. Organize the screws and document the locations.
D. Use a magnetic tipped screwdriver to remove the screws.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A user is connecting to the Internet using a DSL modem. The user installs a new wireless router and is
unable to connect remotely to their computer, using Remote Desktop. The user had no issues connecting
remotely before the wireless router was installed.
Which of the following is the problem?
A. Wireless router drivers are needed.
B. Port forwarding is not setup.
C. The wireless router is defective.
D. VPN is not setup correctly.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Offline files and folders are available on which versions of Windows? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7 Ultimate
B. Windows 7 Home Premium
C. Windows XP Home
D. Windows Vista Home Premium 64-bit
E. Windows XP Professional
Answer: A,E

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NO.20 The user cannot access some Internet websites, but can connect to resources inside the local network.
The technician successfully uses the ping command to test the user s connectivity. Which of the following
commands can the technician run NEXT to troubleshoot the issue?
A. net /?
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. netstat -r
D. nbtstat -R
Answer: B

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