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Exam Code: 9A0-164
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Captivate® 5.5 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 You created a software simulat-ion and noticed that none of the new windows you opened during the
recording process are recorded.What should you have done prior to creating the simulat-ion?
A.In the Preferences dialog, set the Global Default to Move New Windows Inside Recording Area.
B.In the Preferences dialog, click Recording Settings and select Move New Windows Inside Recording
Area.
C.During the recording process, pause the recording, drag the new window inside the capture area,
resume recording and then manually create a screen capture.
D.When creating a softwaresimulat-ion, always use a project template.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have to add a Full Motion Recording (FMR) to your project.You do NOT want the mouse to appear
in the recorded slide.What should you do?
A.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording FMR category, uncheck Show Mouse in Full Motion
Recording Mode.
B.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording Settings category, uncheck Show Mouse in Full Motion
Recording Mode.
C.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording FMR category, select Hide Mouse in Full Motion Recording
Mode.
D.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording Settings category, select Hide Mouse in Full Motion
Recording Mode.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You want to record a software simulat-ion using the Snap to Application Region option and you end up
selecting a wrong region.How should you select a different region?
A.Exit the Capture dialog and restart the workflow.
B.Click Configure Region and select a new region.
C.Click Reconfigure Region and select a new region.
D.Once selected, you cannot change the region.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the difference between a project template and a master slide?
A.Project templates can contain master slides; master slides cannot contain templates.
B.Project templates cannot contain master slides; master slides can contain templates.
C.Placeholders can be used in master slides but not in project templates.
D.Placeholders cannot be used in project templates.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have created a course using a project template that contains a caption placeholder for onscreen
text.How will you add text to this placeholder?
A.Choose Edit > Add Text to Placeholder.
B.Right-click the placeholder and select Add Text to Placeholder.
C.Double-click the placeholder.
D.In the Properties Inspector, under General accordion, click Add Text to Placeholder.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the YouTube Widescreen Standard Dimensions available in Captivate project presets?
A.640x480
B.640x360
C.800x600
D.1024x768
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are creating a course for a wide audience and you are NOT sure of the screen resolution they are
using.Which project size should you choose?
A.200 x 200
B.320 x 240
C.800 x 600
D.1280 x 720
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which is the extension of a project created using Aggregator?
A.CPTA
B.CPTX
C.SWF
D.AGGR
Answer: D

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NO.9 You modify the Classic workspace according to your project requirements.Later, you want to go back
to the default Classic settings.What should you do?
A.Choose Window > Workspace > Classic.
B.Choose Window > Workspace > Reset Classic.
C.Choose File > Workspace > Classic.
D.Choose File > Workspace > Reset Classic.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You want to combine multiple projects and publish them using Aggregator.What should you do?
A.Ensure that all project filenames have no spaces.
B.Ensure that all of the modules have been published as SWF.
C.Ensure that all of the modules have been published as EXE.
D.Create a master slide with click boxes that link to each project.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two slide placeholders can be added to project templates? (Choose two.)
A.Recording Slide Placeholder
B.Image Slide Placeholder
C.Animation Slide Placeholder
D.Question Slide Placeholder
E.PowerPoint Slide Placeholder
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 You are creating a branching course.Which is the most effective workspace to use for this project?
A.Classic
B.Effects
C.Navigation
D.Review
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your company standards state that the corporate logo must be used in all the content you create.How
should you implement this in your eLearning course?
A.Add the logo to the Master slide.
B.Paste the logo on all the slides.
C.Paste the logo on the first slide and select the timing as rest of the slide.
D.Make the logo as a background image for all the slides.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You have recorded a Full Motion Recording (FMR) and need to delete some frames.What should you
do?
A.You CANNOT edit the FMR.Instead, re-record the lesson being careful not to include any extra mouse
actions.
B.Open the FMR in Flash for editing.Import the edited FMR back into Captivate.
C.Go to the slide containing the FMR.In Properties Inspector > FMR Edit Options, choose Trim.
D.On the Timeline, double-click the FMR.The FMR Editor will open giving you the ability to edit the
FMR.Remove frames, click Save, and return to Captivate.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are creating a compliance course and need the course to be non-functional after a certain time
period.Which option in the Preferences dialog should you select?
A.Under General Settings category, select Project Expiry Date.
B.Under Project Publish Settings category, select Project Expiry Date.
C.Under Project Start and End category, select Project Expiry Date.
D.Under Project Information category, select Project Expiry Date.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You need to publish your project to Apple iPad.Which default preset should you choose?
A.Apple iPad (1024x768)
B.Apple iPad (800x600)
C.Apple iPad (1440x1080)
D.Apple iPad (1280x720)
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the most efficient way to capture actions outside the recording area?
A.Record two videos, each showing the actions in their respective recording areas.After recording, import
the slides and objects from one project into the other.
B.Use the Custom recording mode and select Force all actions into the Recording Area.
C.When creating the new project, select a Recording area that will be big enough to capture everything
you'll be doing on your screen.
D.Select either Automatic or Manual Panning prior to recording thesimulat-ion.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are creating eLearning content for high definition output.Which project size should you choose?
A.320 x 240
B.800 x 600
C.1024 x 768
D.1280 x 720
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are creating a simul-ation to explain how a particular dialog in Adobe Photoshop functions.Which
command should you choose to record this simul-ation?
A.Application > Snap to Custom Size.
B.Application > Snap to Application Region.
C.Screen Area > Snap to Full Screen.
D.Screen Area > Snap to Application Region.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are creating a software simulat-ion on how to draw using a Paintbrush in Adobe Photoshop.Which
is the most efficient mode of recording this simulat-ion?
A.Automatic
B.Full Motion
C.Manual
D.Custom
Answer: B

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Exam Code: Maya12-A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is most accurate?
DmapAutofocus...
A. adjusts the size of the square grid of pixels that's placed in front of the light for the first pass
Raytrace
Shadow calculation
B. is the attribute that controls the focal point used in depth of field calculation
C. controls the shadow anti-aliasing level used for the Raytrace Shadow calculation
D. is the attribute that automatically controls where the Dmap will be focused.
Answer: B

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NO.3 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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NO.4 "Swimming" is a potential problem with Projected textures. This is an effect where it looks like
the
animated object is moving or 'swimming' through the texture.
What can be done to fix this? Select all that apply.
A. If the object is just transforming and not deforming, parent the 3D Placement node to the
animated object
B. If the object is deforming, you can use a Texture Reference object or convert the file to a 2D
texture
C. If the object is deforming, you can bake the deformation by using Edit > Keys > Bake
Simulation
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

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NO.6 The shading network in a Normal 2DTexture Map is made up of which of the following?
A. One file texture node and a projection node that defines the texture's placement
B. One file texture node and the place2DTexture node that defines the texture's placement.
C. Two place 2DTexture nodes.
D. One place 2DTexture node and one place 3Dtexture node
Answer: B

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NO.7 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.9 When choosing an NISC Video Image preset, in addition to image width and height, which
other setting is changed
A. Pixel Aspect Ratio
B. Renderable Camera
C. File format becomes TGA
D. Device Aspect Ratio
Answer: A

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NO.10 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 020-222
Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Health/Fitness Instructor Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 .Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female
client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Answer: B

ACSM   020-222   020-222

NO.5 The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue metabolic
systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal contractions.
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
Answer: B

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NO.7 .During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40
seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury
to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient
safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything
possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C

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NO.9 .Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determinewhether to
conduct an assessment.
Answer: D

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NO.10 .A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of
the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours
before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the
assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.11 .Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of error.
Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using this technique to determine
body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.
B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.
Answer: A

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NO.12 .A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional
provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A

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NO.13 .Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D

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NO.14 .A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent
resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol
of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C

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NO.15 .Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will vary
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A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
Answer: A

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NO.1 A table named "sample" is defined as below. Select two statements which will generate a constraint
error. CREATE TABLE sample ( i INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, j INTEGER, CHECK ( i > 0 AND j < 0 ) );
A.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (1, 0);
B.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (2, -2);
C.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (3, NULL);
D.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (NULL, -4);
E.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (5, -5);
Answer:A D

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NO.2 The following is the result of executing the createlang command which is installed with PostgreSQL.
$ createlang -U postgres --list mydb Procedural Languages Name | Trusted? ---------+--------- plpgsql | yes
Select two correct statements from below.
A.The procedural language plpgsql is installed in the database mydb using the above command.
B.The procedural language plpgsql can be used in the database mydb.
C.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can execute the OS commands on the server side.
D.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can read/write OS files on the server side.
E.plpgsql is a safe language with restricted operations.
Answer:B E

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NO.3 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT * FROM sample WHERE v ~ 'ab';
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.4 Four SQL statements were executed in the following order. CREATE TABLE foo (bar INT); ALTER
TABLE foo ALTER bar TYPE BIGINT; ALTER TABLE foo ADD baz VARCHAR(5); ALTER TABLE foo
DROP bar; Select two SQL statements that generate an error when executed.
A.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('12345');
B.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('5000000000');
C.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('ABC');
D.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (2000000000);
E.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (NULL);
Answer:B D

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NO.5 Select the correct SQL statement which concatenates strings 'ABC' and 'abc' to form 'ABCabc'.
A.SELECT 'ABC' . 'abc';
B.SELECT cat('ABC', 'abc') FROM pg_operator;
C.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc';
D.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc' FROM pg_operator;
E.SELECT 'ABC' || 'abc';
Answer:E

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NO.6 Table "t1" is defined as follows: CREATE TABLE t1 (value VARCHAR(5)); A set of SQL statements were
executed in the following order. Select the number of rows that table "t1" has after execution. BEGIN;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('AA'); SAVEPOINT point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('BB'); SAVEPOINT
point2; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('CC'); ROLLBACK TO point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('DD'); END;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.0 rows
Answer:B

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NO.7 Given the following two table definitions, select one SQL statement which will cause an error. CREATE
TABLE sample1 (id INTEGER, data TEXT); CREATE TABLE sample2 (id INTEGER);
A.SELECT id AS data, data FROM sample1;
B.SELECT id, id FROM sample1;
C.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 AS s1, sample1 AS s2;
D.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
E.SELECT s1.id, s2.data FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
Answer:E

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NO.8 Select two suitable statements about major version upgrades of PostgreSQL from below.
A.You can use the databases of the old major version.
B.To use the data from the old version, you only need to replace the program.
C.To use the data from the old version, you need to conduct a backup and restore.
D.There is a possibility of configuration parameter changes after major version upgrades.
E.Upgrade scripts can be executed while the old version of PostgreSQL is running.
Answer:C D

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NO.9 Select one incorrect statement concerning the relational data model.
A.It expresses the real world in a collection of 2-dimensional tables called a relation.
B.It is a model based on set theory.
C.It has a logical structure independent of physical data structure.
D.It is made up of a multiple stage hierarchy where each of the set elements has parent child relationships.
E.It is a model that was proposed by E.F. Codd in 1970.
Answer:D

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NO.10 Table "t1" is defined below. Table "t1" has a column "id" of type INTEGER, and a column "name" of
type TEXT. t1: The following SQL is executed while client "A" is connected. BEGIN; SELECT * FROM t1
WHERE id = 2 FOR UPDATE; SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 1 FOR UPDATE; -- (*) While the second
'SELECT' statement, shown with (*), is being executed, a separate client "B" connects and executes the
following SQL. Select the correct statement about the execution results. UPDATE t1 SET name = 'turtle'
WHERE id = 2; Note: the default transaction isolation level is set to "read committed".
A.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current connection for client "A" is finished.
B.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current transaction for client "A" is finished.
C.The 'UPDATE' process for client "B" proceeds regardless of the condition of client "A".
D.The process of client "B" immediately generates an error.
E.The processes for both clients are blocked, and an error stating that a deadlock has been detected is
generated.
Answer:B

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NO.11 Select two incorrect statements regarding 'DOMAIN'.
A.When defining a domain, you can add a default value and constraints to the original data.
B.Domain is a namespace existing between databases and objects such as tables.
C.A domain is created by 'CREATE DOMAIN'.
D.A domain can be used as a column type when defining a table.
E.To define a domain, both input and output functions are required.
Answer:B E

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NO.12 Select the most suitable statement about the PostgreSQL license from below.
A.PostgreSQL is distributed under the GPL license.
B.PostgreSQL is distributed under the PostgreSQL license.
C.PostgreSQL is distributed under the LGPL license.
D.PostgreSQL is distributed under the BSD license.
E.PostgreSQL is distributed under the X11(MIT) license.
Answer:D

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NO.13 Select two suitable statements regarding creating a new table.
A.There is no upper limit to the number of columns in a table.
B.A newly created table is empty and has 0 rows.
C.You can only use alphabetic characters for a table name.
D.The row name must be within 16 characters.
E.The SQL 'CREATE TABLE' statement is used to create a new table.
Answer:B E

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NO.14 PostgreSQL can use an index to access a table. Select two incorrect statements about indexes.
A.An index is created by 'CREATE INDEX', and deleted by 'DROP INDEX'.
B.By using an index effectively, searching and sorting performs faster.
C.There are B-tree, Hash, R-tree and GiST index types.
D.By creating an index, performance always improves.
E.Creating an unused index does not affect the performance of a database at all.
Answer:D E

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NO.15 Select three SQL statements which return NULL.
A.SELECT 0 = NULL;
B.SELECT NULL != NULL;
C.SELECT NULL IS NULL;
D.SELECT NULL;
E.SELECT 'null'::TEXT;
Answer:A B D

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NO.16 The following SQL statements were executed using psql. Select the appropriate statement about the
result. LISTEN sign_v; BEGIN; NOTIFY sign_v; COMMIT; LISTEN sign_v;
A.At the point that 'NOTIFY sign_v' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification
'sign_v' received" is output.
B.At the point that 'COMMIT' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v'
received" is output.
C.At the point that 'SELECT * FROM pg_user;" is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
D.When 'LISTEN sign_v' is executed for the second time, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
E.The message "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v' received" is not received while in this connection.
Answer:B

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NO.17 Select two correct descriptions about views.
A.A view is created by 'DECLARE VIEW', and deleted by 'DROP VIEW'.
B.A view is a virtual table which does not exist.
C.A view is created to simplify complicated queries.
D.You can create a view with the same name as already existing tables.
E.A view only exists while the postmaster is running, and is deleted when the postmaster stops.
Answer:B C

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NO.18 Select the most suitable statement about PostgreSQL from below.
A.PostgreSQL is a card-type database management system.
B.PostgreSQL is a hierarchical database management system.
C.PostgreSQL is a network-type database management system.
D.PostgreSQL is an XML database management system.
E.PostgreSQL is a relational database management system.
Answer:E

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NO.19 Select two suitable statements about sequences.
A.A sequence always returns a 4-byte INTEGER type value, so the maximum value is 2147483647.
B.A sequence is defined by 'CREATE SEQUENCE', and deleted by 'DROP SEQUENCE'.
C.Although the "nextval" function is called during a transaction, it will have no effect if that transaction is
rolled back.
D.A sequence always generates 0 or consecutive positive numbers.
E.A sequence number can be set by calling the "setval" function.
Answer:B E

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NO.20 The "animal" table consists of the following data: Select the correct result returned by executing the
following SQL statement: SELECT name FROM animal ORDER BY weight DESC LIMIT 2 OFFSET 1;
A.A syntax error will occur.
Answer:A

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NO.21 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT DISTINCT ON (data) * FROM sample;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:B

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NO.22 Select an incorrect statement regarding the following SQL statement. Note that "user_view" is a view.
CREATE OR REPLACE RULE rule_1 AS ON UPDATE TO user_view DO INSTEAD NOTHING;
A.It is defining a rule "rule_1".
B.It will replace "rule_1" if it already exists.
C.Executing 'UPDATE user_view' will no longer output errors.
D.When executing 'UPDATE user_view', data is updated in the table that is the origin of the view.
E.'DROP RULE rule_1 ON user_view' deletes the above definition.
Answer:D

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NO.23 The tables "t1" and "t2" are defined below. The tables "t1" and "t2" have columns "id" which are type of
INTEGER and column "name"s which are type of TEXT. t1 t2 The following SQL command was executed.
Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT * FROM t1 NATURAL FULL OUTER JOIN t2;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:D

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NO.24 The table "custom" is defined below. The "id" column and "introducer" column are of INTEGER type,
and the "email" column is of TEXT type. id | email | introducer ----+----------------+----------- 2 |
aaa@example.com | 1 3 | bbb@example.com | 2 4 | ccc@example.com | 2 Three SQL statements were
executed in the following order: INSERT INTO custom SELECT max(id) 1, 'ddd@example.com', 4 FROM
custom; UPDATE custom SET introducer = 999 WHERE email = 'bbb@example.com'; DELETE FROM
custom WHERE introducer NOT IN (SELECT id FROM custom); Select the number of rows in the
"custom" table after the execution.
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.25 Select two incorrect statements concerning PostgreSQL license.
A.It can be used freely.
B.It can be duplicated freely.
C.It can be freely redistributed.
D.Developers are responsible for its maintenance support.
E.Developers are only responsible for handling its crucial faults.
Answer:D E

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NO.26 Select two suitable statements regarding the following SQL statement: CREATE TRIGGER trigger_1
AFTER UPDATE ON sales FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE write_log();
A.It is defining a trigger "trigger_1".
B.Every time 'UPDATE' is executed on the "sales" table, the "write_log" function is called once.
C.The "write_log" function is called before 'UPDATE' takes place.
D.'UPDATE' is not executed if "write_log" returns NULL.
E.'DROP TRIGGER trigger_1 ON sales;' deletes the defined trigger.
Answer:A E

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NO.27 SQL statements were executed in the following order: CREATE TABLE fmaster (id INTEGER
PRIMARY KEY, name TEXT); CREATE TABLE ftrans (id INTEGER REFERENCES fmaster (id), stat
INTEGER, date DATE); INSERT INTO fmaster VALUES (1, 'itemA'); INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1,
CURRENT_DATE); Select two SQL statements that will generate an error when executed next.
A.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1, CURRENT_DATE);
B.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (2, 1, '2007-07-07');
C.UPDATE fmaster SET name = 'itemAX' WHERE id = 1;
D.UPDATE fmaster SET id = 100 WHERE id = 1;
E.UPDATE ftrans SET id = 200 WHERE id = 1;
Answer:A C

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NO.28 Select two suitable statements regarding the data types of PostgreSQL.
A.One field can handle up to 1GB of data.
B.'n' in CHARACTER(n) represents the number of bytes.
C.Only the INTEGER type can be declared as an array.
D.There is a non-standard PostgreSQL data type, called Geometric data type, which handles
2-dimensional data.
E.A large object data type can be used to store data of unlimited size.
Answer:A D

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NO.29 Select two transaction isolation levels supported in PostgreSQL.
A.DIRTY READ
B.READ COMMITTED
C.REPEATABLE READ
D.PHANTOM READ
E.SERIALIZABLE
Answer:B E

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NO.30 The table "score" is defined as follows: gid | score -----+------ 1 | 70 1 | 60 2 | 100 3 | 80 3 | 50 The
following query was executed. Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT gid, max(score) FROM
score GROUP BY gid HAVING max(score) > 60;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.5 rows
Answer:C

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NO.1 Which of the following are two pieces of information required when configuring a remote component
for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A system administrator attempts to start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services but receives the
following error message: System Error 1069 has occurred. What could be the possible cause for this error?
(Choose one.)
A. The system administrator is logged into the computer with the wrong account
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are starting with the local system account
C. The system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator roleThe
system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator?role
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are trying to login with the incorrect login information
E. The Microsoft SQL and Microsoft Exchange services are not started on the remote computer
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which BlackBerry Router Service configuration must be done before performing a wireless enterprise
activation over Wi-Fi ? (Choose one.)
A. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is not installed remotely
B. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to Microsoft SQL Server
C. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to the mailbox
D. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is configured to listen on port 8080
E. Verify the setting Permit wireless activation in your WLAN environment is enabled
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which are the minimum supported BlackBerry Enterprise Server versions which can be upgraded to
BlackBerry Enterprise Server version 5.0? (Choose one.)
A. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
B. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
C. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
D. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
E. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP4 or later
F. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP6 or later
Answer: E

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.6 How can a support representative assign a custom enterprise activation password to a BlackBerry
device user? (Choose one.)
A. Generate an activation email through the BlackBerry Administration Service
B. Assign a custom password through the IT policy assigned to the user
C. Send a PIN message to the user containing the custom password
D. Specify an activation password through the BlackBerry Administration Service
E. Assign the password to the PIN through the Enterprise Service Policy
Answer: D

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NO.7 IT policies are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps what level of the IT policy takes priority? (Choose one.)
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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NO.8 What icon is displayed in the menus on the BlackBerry device to indicate that an option has been
disabled by an IT policy? (Choose one.)
A. Red Padlock
B. Red ?Red ?
C. Black ?Black ?
D. Black Padlock
Answer: A

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NO.9 By default how long will the enterprise activation password last before it expires within the BlackBerry
Administration Service? (Choose one.)
A. 1 hour
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 7 days
Answer: D

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NO.10 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.11 While provisioning a new BlackBerry device for a user, the following error is displayed: An error has
occurred. Please contact your System Administrator. When reviewing the logs the following is located:
User is not authorized for BlackBerry services What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The user account needs to be assigned to a user group
B. The PIN needs to be added to the Approved PIN list in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. A security wipe must be performed on the BlackBerry device prior to starting the enterprise activation
process
D. Enterprise Server Policy needs to be enabled on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. An IT policy must be assigned to the newly created user account
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which one of the following is the correct registry path to the BlackBerry Configuration Database
information? (Choose one.)
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise Server\
C. HKEY_LOCAL_USER\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
D. This information is not stored in the registry
Answer: A

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NO.13 What happens to the activation email message after the BlackBerry Messaging Agent has retrieved it
from the mailbox? (Choose one.)
A. Email message is marked as read
B. Email message is moved to the Sent folder
C. Email message remains in the Inbox unread
D. Email message is removed from the Inbox
E. Email message is filed to the BlackBerry folder in the mailbox
Answer: D

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NO.14 A system administrator has applied Service Pack 1 to the Microsoft Office Communicator Server 2007.
The system administrator decides to restart the BlackBerry Collaboration Service. What will be the effect
on the BlackBerry device users that are currently logged in to the Microsoft Office Communicator client?
(Choose one.)
A. The users will not notice any difference
B. The connection will appear slow while the service restarts
C. The contacts will temporarily be lost in the Microsoft Office Communicator client
D. The current session will be dropped and the users will have to log in again
E. The users will not be able to send messages
Answer: D

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NO.15 A system administrator runs daily reports on BlackBerry device users with the BlackBerry Monitoring
Service. The system administrator notices that the pending count for 2 out of 30 users is increasing. How
can the system administrator verify the two users are able to establish a data connection for email
message flow? (Choose two.)
A. Produce another daily report to verify that pending count will decrease
B. Send a PIN message to the two affected users
C. Check the application log for any errors for the two users
D. Remove and re-add the two users and start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services
E. Verify the port 3101 is open on the firewall
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed on remote computers; separate from
the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Controller Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
F. BlackBerry Alert Service
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.17 Which two methods can be used to directly access the Windows Event Log to review them for errors?
(Choose two.)
A. Internet Explorer
B. Windows Control Panel
C. Windows Run command
D. BlackBerry Configuration Tool
E. BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which of the following components is responsible for performing wireless calendar
synchronization? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry MailStore Service
D. BlackBerry Controller Service
E. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following ule Types?define a change in the data for an item being monitored by the
BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (ChooseWhich of the following ?ule Types?define a change in the data
for an item being monitored by the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose three.)
A. Value Based Rule
B. Time Based Rule
C. Trigger Based Rule
D. Action Based Rule
E. Duration Based Rule
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 A BlackBerry device user is trying to send an email message but is receiving the following error when
trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is
having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 006-002
Exam Name: MYSQL (Certified MySQL 5.0 DBA Part II)
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

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NO.2 Does max_connections have an affect on the number of slaves that may connect to a master?
A. No, because slaves are not really clients.
B. Yes, because each slave is effectively a connected user.
C. No, because slaves do not use the same type of connection as a regular client.
D. Yes, because if the server has too many connections, it may slow the slaves down.
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002   006-002

NO.3 The user 'joe' connecting from the host example.com has full access to all databases on the server:
mysql> SHOW GRANTS FOR 'joe'@'example.com';
+----------------------------------------------------+
| Grants for joe@example.com |
+----------------------------------------------------+
| GRANT ALL PRIVILEGES ON *.* TO 'joe'@'example.com' |
+----------------------------------------------------+
1 row in set (0.00 sec)
You need to restrict the user from accessing the mysql database. Will the following statement do this?
REVOKE ALL PRIVILEGES ON mysql.* FROM 'joe'@'example.com'
A. Yes
B. No
C. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true regarding wildcards in the host name of an account
specification?
A. The '%' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
B. The '*' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
C. The '_' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
D. The '.' character is used to match any single character or number
E. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters at the beginning of the host name or IP
address only
F. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters at the end of the host name or IP address
only
G. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters anywhere in the host name or IP address
Answer: AG

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NO.6 Can multi-column FULLTEXT indexes be used? If so, when?
A. No, they can not be used.
B. Yes, they should be used to search multiple columns simultaneously.
C. Yes, they can be used to search either one or all of the indexed columns.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which of the following are important network factors for remote MySQL clients?
A. Latency.
B. Firewalls.
C. Throughput speed.
D. The type of routers used.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 Consider the following EXPLAIN output.
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM City WHERE Population > 8000000
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: City
type: ALL
possible_keys: NULL
key: NULL
key_len: NULL
ref: NULL
rows: 4079
Extra: Using where
Which of the following statements are true?
A. The query cannot be optimized any better.
B. No index could be used to perform the query.
C. All 4079 rows of the table need to examined.
D. The Name column should be indexed.
E. The Population column should be indexed.
Answer: BCE

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NO.10 What type of resource limitations may be placed on a user account with the GRANT statement?
A. The number of times per hour that an account is allowed to connect to the server
B. The number of queries per hour an account is allowed to issue
C. The number of updates per hour an account is allowed to issue
D. The maximum number of simultaneous connections an account can have
E. Resource limits can only be specified globally, not per-account
F. MySQL does not have provisions for limiting resource usage
Answer: ABCD

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NO.11 Which of the following best describes what MASTER_LOG_FILE and MASTER_LOG_POS provides?
A. The path of the log file.
B. The file to log replication actions to.
C. The masters binary log name used for replication.
D. The position in the masters binary log in which to start replication.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following would be considered a good candidate table for compression?
A. A table with data that needs only few updates in the future.
B. A table with data that will not be updated in the future.
C. A large table, such as those used for data warehousing.
D. All MyISAM tables are good candidates for compression.
Answer: B

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NO.14 In the following query, the Population column is indexed:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name
-> FROM Country
-> WHERE Code LIKE '%B%' AND Population > 10000
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: ALL
possible_keys: i_pop
key: NULL
key_len: NULL
ref: NULL
rows: 239
Extra: Using where
Which of the following best describes how to deal with the key value of the EXPLAIN output?
A. Use FORCE KEY
B. Use USE INDEX.
C. Use FORCE INDEX.
D. Use USE POSSIBLE_KEY
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.16 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
B. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
C. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.17 In regards to security, which of the following statements are true?
A. mysqld should not be run as root or administrator.
B. mysqld should be run as root or administrator.
C. The user owning the server process should own all files and directories to which the server may write.
D. The root or admininistrator users should own all files related to the server process
Answer: AC

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NO.18 The type of file system you chose may affect MySQL use and/or performance with regard to...
A. Table opening time.
B. Size limits of files.
C. Time to recover from a crash.
D. The number of users MySQL can handle.
E. The type of storage engines that can be used.
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Is it possible to tell the MySQL server to throw an error on division-by-zero rather than converting it to
NULL and a warning?
A. No, it has to be done programmatically.
B. Yes, by updating a system variable.
C. Yes, there is a SQL mode that exists for that.
D. No, division-by-zero is always converted regardless of any setting.
Answer: C

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NO.20 When working with replication, why might you want to stop the SQL thread on the slave while keeping
the I/O thread running?
A. So that no changes are made while making backups.
B. So that events for the slave do not get backlogged on the master.
C. So that remaining events can be processed while not receiving new events from the master.
Answer: AB

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NO.21 Which of the following statements best describe the key buffer?
A. It is a global buffer.
B. It is set on a per-connection basis.
C. It caches index blocks for MyISAM tables only.
D. It caches index blocks for InnoDB tables only.
E. It caches index blocks for all storage engine tables.
Answer: AC

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NO.22 Which of the following is/are valid reasons to consider using --skip-networking?
A. Your server is not networked to other servers.
B. You do not have a need for remote clients to connect.
C. You have a need for remote clients to connect.
D. You are not going to use replication or clustering.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Assuming that the user account 'joe'@'example.com' exists, executing DROP USER
'joe'@'example.com' has the following consequences:
A. The user account will immediately be removed from the server, if no object-level privileges are in effect
for that account
B. The account will be removed from the server the next time FLUSH PRIVILEGES is executed, if no
object-level privileges are in effect for that account
C. The account and all associated privileges will immediately be removed from the server
D. The user account and all associated privileges will be removed from the server the next time FLUSH
PRIVILEGES is executed.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of the following statements are true of compressed tables?
A. They can be uncompressed.
B. They can not be uncompressed.
C. They can be uncompressed but some data corruption may occur.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following statements are true regarding the structure of grant tables in new distributions?
A. They change with every upgrade.
B. They are often changed.
C. They remain the same for backwards compatibility.
Answer: B

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NO.26 When performing diagnostic functions on a server should excessive start and stop messages be looked
for in the error log, and why?
A. No, start and stop messages are of no relevance to diagnostics.
B. Yes, because there is a bug in mysqld that can cause multiple start and stop messages to be inserted
in the log.
C. No, because they will not provide any information as to what is wrong.
D. Yes, because they can indicate that there is something causing the server to restart unexpectedly and
not due to normal startup and shutdown.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following optimizations could be made based on data collected in the slow query log?
A. Tune server parameters.
B. Change the storage engines in use.
C. Make changes to the network infrastructure.
D. Rewrite queries to perform more efficiently.
E. Normalize data or add indexes to the tables that the queries use.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.28 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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NO.29 What kind of replication is supported by the MySQL server?
A. Multiple-master replication
B. Master to slave replication
C. Single file based clustering
D. MySQL doesn't support replication
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002   006-002

NO.30 Which of the following best describe the effects on performance for the dynamic-row format for
MyISAM has?
A. Retrievals are more complex and slower.
B. Retrievals are less complex and are faster.
C. Rows generally take up less disk space than fixed-row format.
D. Rows generally take up more disk space than fixed-row format.
Answer: AC

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