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Exam Code: A2180-371
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NO.1 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
POWER7+720. The customer has TS2900 SCSI-attached tape drive and 20 70GB disk units.
Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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NO.5 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.1 A sales representative is meeting with the CFO of a retailer to explain the current
proposal for a new
POS system. The CFO asks the RSS representative to be prepared to justify why this project
should be
funded ahead of other projects under consideration. Which two actions should the RSS
representative
take to be best prepared for this discussion? (Choose two.)
A. review the ROI
B. Google the CFO's background
C. review the business value drivers
D. understand the CFO's relationship with IBM
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 A customer wants to deploy a new cashier fraud loss prevention solution. What is the
business value
of this solution?
A. reduces customer theft
B. reduces front-end shrink
C. improves inventory accuracy
D. improves cashier productivity
Answer: B

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NO.3 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their ten stores. Each store
has two registers.
What is the best resource to handle this customer's needs?
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS Reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Retail Store Solutions Sales Representative is staffing a booth at a trade show. Other
than business
cards, what is the most important information the Sales Representative should gather from
each visitor?
A. area of interest
B. most used retail vendor
C. retail budget projections
D. number of lanes per store
E. retail revenue projections
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are two Internet-based resources a sales representative may use to identify POS
competitors in a
customer account? (Choose two.)
A. competitors' Web sites
B. Hoover's POS Competition Web site
C. Securities and Exchange (SEC) filings
D. IBM Retail Store Solution product Web site
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A warehouse retailer has issued an RFP for a self checkout solution with 3 years of
maintenance. They
asked for best and final pricing for 500 stores with 4 lanes each. What are two of the most
important
factors to know about the competition when pricing the solution? (Choose two.)
A. market position
B. maintenance terms
C. lane configuration
D. relationship with customer
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What are two weaknesses of Micros? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary solutions
B. no fans in some models
C. reliance on infraredtouchscreens
D. 10/100 Ethernet LAN slowing network connectivity
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their 500 stores. Each store
has five
registers. Which two resources can handle this customer's needs? (Choose two.)
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: C2010-590
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NO.1 A customer would like to consolidate their AIX and IBM i workloads that are currently running
on several POWER6 servers. They also want to consolidate storage and use Live Partition Mobility to
reduce planned downtime for server maintenance.
In addition to a Storwize V70001 PowerVM Enterprise Edition and dual VIO Servers, which of the
following configurations supports these requirements?
A. One POWER7+ server IBM i and AIX client LPARs
B. Two POWER7+ servers IBM i and AIX client LPARs
C. One POWER7+ server AIX client LPARs IBM i LPAR5 with internal storage
D. Two POWER7+ servers AIX client LPAR5 IBM i LPARs with internal storage
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following will cause Live Partition Mobility validation to fail?
A. Less than one full processor
B. AME configured for the partition
C. Network connection through HEA
D. NPIV connection to SAN storage through VIOS
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is interested in virtualizing their environment. PowerVM and VMware are the
products whose hypervisors are best suited for their existing infrastructure.
Which advantage of PowerVM over VMware will most benefit their environment?
A. Industry leading hypervisor
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Consolidation of multiple workloads
D. Hypervisor components embedded in hardware
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer wants to implement 8 LPARs, 4 of IBM i and 4 of AIX. The customer wants the new
systems to be modular, configured to support their needs, and have room to expand if needed.
Which system is the minimum needed to support the customer requirements?
A. PureElex p220
B. PureElex p260
C. PureFlex p24L
D. PureFlex p460
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which is one of the advantages of the 6-core Power 720 when compared to the 4-core Power
720?
A. Offers a P05 tier
B. Offers one 12X loop
C. Offers Dual VIO Servers
D. Offers more SAS Disk Bays in CEO
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer plans to deploy a 24x7 application, and is evaluating prospective solutions based
on which would offer the highest level of application availability.
Which of the following solutions should be presented to the customer for consideration?
A. Power 780 with Active Memory Sharing
B. Power 770 with Active Memory Mirroring
C. Power 760 with Active Memory Mirroring
D. Power 740 with Active Memory Management
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is considering running Linux in a virtualized environment and is evaluating the
differences between PowerVM and VMware.
Which of the following would be an advantage of PowerVM?
A. Number of virtual processors
B. Ability to move virtual machines
C. Ability to dynamically add CPU's
D. Ability to dynamically add memory
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to implement Linux on Power with dual VIO Servers on internal disk
controllers. Which of the following systems should be suggested?
A. Power 720
B. Power 730
C. PowerLinux 7R1
D. PowerLinux 7R2
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-400
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Operational Decision Management V8.0 Application Development
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NO.1 An application developer must implement verbalization changes in a rule project. This rule
project: is primarily maintained by rule authors in Decision Center which is the source of record
("source of
truth").
is not present in the application developer's Rule Designer workspace.
does not have any dependency to or from any other rule project.
contains historical versions of rules that should be retained.
What should the application developer do?
A. Publish the rule project to a Rule Solutions for Office RuleDoc, implement rule changes and
update
Decision Center
B. Create a new "Rule Project from Decision Center" in Rule Designer, implement verbalization
changes
and publish to Decision Center
C. Create a new "Rule Project" in Rule Designer, synchronize it with the rule project from Decision
Center,
implement verbalization changes and publish to Decision Center
D. Choose "Export Current Project State" in Decision Center, import the ".zip" file in Rule Designer,
implement verbalization changes, delete the Decision Center rule project and import it back with a
".zip"
file exported from Rule Designer
Answer: B

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NO.2 Decision Center contains the following:
Two rule projects: CorporateRiskAssessment and NewYorkRiskAssessment.
One RuleApp RiskAssessmentRuleApp with a single ruleset CorporateRiskAssessmentRuleset.
An application developer needs to deploy the NewYorkRiskAssessment rule project to Rule
Execution
Server as a separate ruleset. Updates to NewYorkRiskAssessment need to be deployed in a single
action with updates to CorporateRiskAssessment. How should the application developer setup the
RuleApp structure in Decision Center to accomplish these requirements?
A. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, click Deploy to add the NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
B. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, click New to create a new NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
C. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, select RiskAssessmentRuleApp and click Edit to add the
NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset ruleset.
D. Select the NewYorkRiskAssessment rule project on the Home tab, and under Project > Manage
Subbranches and Baselines > Baselines, click New to add the NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An application developer is in charge of synchronizing changes in a rule project between
Decision
Center and the Source Code Control (SCC) tool used for development. Which rule project artifacts
should
the application developer exclude from SCC?
A. resources and templates folders
B. resources folder and .syncEntries file
C. output folder and .syncEntries file
D. output, templates and queries folders
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about an IBM Rational Team Concert project area?
(Choose three.)
A. It has an associated process, which is a collection of practices, rules, and guidelines used
to organize
and control the flow of work.
B. It has a graphical chart that illustrates business priority ranking of a project relative to other
peer
projects.
C. It is typically based on a predefined process template, which can be optionally modified to
satisfy any
unique needs of the project.
D. It may optionally contain team areas that define the sub-teams that work on the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which three options are available for defining build schedules? (Choose three)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. during defined business hours
D. only if there are newly accepted changes
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 For what purpose should a project administrator use a value set definition.?
A. to display all users in a project or team area that have a specific role
B. to display a full list of team members
C. to enable a query to show only those work items related to a specific category
D. to write a query that lists all the users in a team
Answer: A

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NO.4 How is version control of process templates accomplished?
A. automatically by IBM Rational Team Concert on every save
B. by the naming convention of the templates
C. by keeping copies on a shared drive
D. by using IBM Rational Team Concert source control of the exported process template
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three views does the default Eclipse perspective work items provide? (Choose
three.)
A. Package Explorer
B. Team Artifacts
C. Team Central
D. My Work
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 When working with public dashboards, which two factors should be considered when
determining the
best strategy for saving changes?
A. number of widgets being customized and elapsed load time
B. proper permissions and type of dashboard
C. number of people with permissions to edit and type of edits
D. dashboard template configuration and widget selection
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three does a setup project action create? (Choose three.)
A. a build definition
B. a stream and component
C. work item categories
D. team areas
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 In addition to Release, Iteration, and Daily Work Planning, which three capabilities does
IBM Rational
Team Concert Support? (Choose three.)
A. Requirements Management
B. Work Item Management
C. Source Code Management
D. Build Management
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 Which type of global insurance company must comply with the regulations introduced by
Solvency II?
A. European-based Life insurer with GPW of less than 5M Euros
B. A Tokyo-based multi-line insurer with an open market value of more than 100M Euros
C. A London-based multi-line insurer with GPW of 10M Euros
D. A North American based Property & Casualty Insurer with GPW of S10M
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.2 Which of these C-level executives would be a key influencer for the selection of a Solvency II
Compliance Solution?
A. Senior Vice President of Global Sales
B. Chief Marketing Officer
C. Vice President of European Sales
D. Chief Investment Officer
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.3 Which is the appropriate qualifying question for a prospect for the IBM Algorithmics Actuarial
& Financial Modeler?
A. Are you struggling to adapt your current actuarial models to address new business requirements?
B. Are you building an internal model for Economic Capital or Solvency II?
C. What are your plans for consolidating input data from various systems'?
D. What methodology do you use to aggregate market and non-market risk?
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Algorithmics Actuarial and Financial Modeling provides a range of business benefits, including:
*Advanced actuarial modeling to undertake the full spectrum of global actuarial
calculations, and address the challenges of 'real-world', principles-based modeling.
Supports regulatory compliance including Solvency II and other regimes.
*Scalable modeling and production infrastructure enables full transparency, audit, workflow
and control over the modeling process.
*Critical decision support enables more effective, risk-informed business strategies.
*Helps reduce actuarial costs and optimize ease of use with swift implementation and processing
speeds.
Note:
*Supports regulatory compliance
Enhances confidence with a secure modeling and production environment that supports
compliance across a range of risk-based regulatory and other supervisory regimes,
including Solvency II and IFRS.

NO.4 What is the product at the core of the IBM Algorithmics Economic Capital and Solvency II:
Compliance and Reporting Edition?
A. Netteza
B. IBM Algorithmics Actuarial & Financial Modeler
C. Collateral Management
D. Open Pages for Insurance Risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Compliance and Reporting Edition *Offers a pre-configured, robust and rapid implementation
solution for Solvency II that focuses on a Standard Formula approach. Provides you with the
capabilities of Algo Financial Modeler, a powerful actuarial and financial modeling engine, combined
with a workflow, governance and reporting tool to deliver an end-to-end solution for Solvency II
*Algo Financial Modeler can either calculate liability cashflows or act as an aggregation layer to
consolidate cashflows generated by existing actuarial systems. *Offers the flexibility to scale up to
the more advanced feature set of the Enterprise Edition to meet the challenges of changing
business requirements and growth.

NO.5 Which one of the following is the key legislative driver for insurance companies and pension
funds to improve their risk management processes?
A. Basle II
B. Basle III
C. Solvency II
D. Dodd Frank
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Dodd-Frank:made changes in the American financial regulatory environment
that affect all federal financial regulatory agencies and almost every part of the nation's financial
services industry.
Incorrect:
Not A:Basel II, initially published in June 2004, was intended to create an international
standard for banking regulators to control how much capital banks need to put aside to
guard against the types of financial and operational risks banks (and the whole economy) face.
Not B:Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory standard on
bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk.
Not C: The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation.

NO.6 Which risk management technique is currently the main motivation for pension funds
toacquirenew risk management systems?
A. Operational Risk
B. Liability hedging strategy
C. Corporate counter party risk
D. Sovereign debt risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Pension funds currently face a multitude of challenges and risks. We believe liability hedging (also
known as liability matching) is an effective way to help de-risk a fund.

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NO.1 Which protocol creates a complete database of the network topology prior to calculating the
optimal route?
A. OSPF
B. PIM
C. RIP
D. LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.2 If you want to configure the SMS database retention criteria, which maintenance option
should you choose?
A. Cleanup Now
B. Reset
C. Edit
D. Refresh
Answer: D

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NO.3 When you configure the NGFW appliance in transparent firewall mode, which configuration is
mandatory?
A. Bridge Group(s)
B. Static routes
C. NAT
D. Dynamic MAC address learning
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your organization wants to allow users to access Facebook but not Facebook Chat Which rules
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A. Block + Notify Social Media
B. Permit + Notify Social Media Chat
C. Block + Notify Social Media Chat
D. Permit Social Media Chat
E. Block Social Media
F. Permit Social Media
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which tasks can be scheduled on an HP TippingPoint SMS? (Select three.)
A. DV distribution
B. Reports
C. Profile distribution
D. System snapshots
E. Profile activation
F. DV Activation
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which Security Zone Property identifies members so that you can apply policies to them?
A. TCP-RST
B. Inspection Policies
C. Named Resources
D. Inspection Profiles
Answer: C

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NO.1 You find that devices on remote networks cannot be discovered. What can cause this?
A. The routers might be blocking SNMP queries.
B. The local area network is corrupt.
C. The host-based systems are creating interference.
D. The server does not have a large enough processor.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which devices are supported by HP Web Jetadmin? (Select two.)
A. Bluetooth-connected printers
B. printers attached to the serial port of a networked PC
C. standard MIB-compliant printers
D. printers with Embedded Web Servers (EWSs)
E. infrared-connected printers
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which data structure contains a database of objects?
A. SNMP GETNEXT
B. Printer MIB
C. SNMP SET
D. Inform
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.planex.net/pdf/print/PCI_Mini-103MN_manual_E_V1.pdf(page 37)

NO.4 Which HP solution is available at no charge for detailed printer hardware analysis?
A. OpenView
B. Insight Manager
C. HPWebJetadmin
D. MarkVision
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is getbulk?
A. an enhanced version of SNMPvl trap
B. a method of retrieving large blocks of MIB data
C. a method of notification that the trap has been received
D. a security feature within firmware
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.manageengine.com/network-monitoring/what-is-snmp.html(basic
commands of snmp, third bullet)

NO.6 What can be applied to groups that automatically populates or de-populates the group with
device members?
A. filter
B. subgroup
C. policy
D. list
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplay
ResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrpresour
ceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c019417864%257CdocLocale%253D&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=c
om.vignette.cachetoken(page 3)

NO.7 What does Driver Pre-Configuration allow administrators to do?
A. pre-configure printer drivers for multiple printers before deployment
B. pre-configure printer drivers for multiple printers after deployment
C. reconfigure embedded device settings on multiple printers before deployment
D. reconfigure printer drivers for multiple printers after deployment
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.t35.physik.tu-muenchen.de/Rechnerdoku/HP4700_Driver_Configuration.pdf

NO.8 Which features in a pre-configured driver can be locked? (Select two.)
A. orientation
B. print quality
C. duplex/simplex
D. job storage with private pin
E. printing in grayscale
Answer: C,E

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Reference:http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c02029521.pdf(page 10)

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Exam Name: Technical Essentials of HP Workstations - Exam
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NO.1 Which processor technology is available for HP Z1 workstations?
A. Single socket multi core
B. Dual socket dual core
C. Dual socket multi core
D. Multi socket single core
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.yildirimbilgen.com/hp/Z1_2012.pdf(slide 3, 3rd bullet)

NO.2 Which option available on HP Z420 workstations enables whisper quiet acoustics even under
heavy loads?
A. Mini tower design
B. Up to 64 GB ECC memory
C. Latest technology from NVIDIA
D. Liquid cooling subsystem
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/ 2009/asetek-adds-liquid-cooling-to-hp-zworks
tations.aspx

NO.3 Who are the leading competitors for HP Z620 workstations?
A. Samick, Asus, and Dell
B. IBM, Lexmark, and NVDIA
C. Samsung, Gold Star, and Hyundai
D. Dell,Lenovo,and Apple
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which market segment is targeted for HP Z230 workstations?
A. Oil and gas
B. Home office
C. Small retail
D. Education
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature that applies to HP Z1 workstations appeals to customers in the healthcare
market segment?
A. 92 percent efficient 240 Watt power supply
B. Easyto clean 27-inch IPS professional display
C. 27-inch HP DreamColor display
D. Large 17-inch display real estate
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which feature applies to the liquid cooling option available in some HP workstations?
A. Reduces the toxicity of the cooling process
B. Replaces the air passing over the heat sink with liquid
C. Muffles the fan noise by surrounding the fan shroud with liquid
D. Replaces the heat sink with a cold plate
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/ 2011 /pc-liquid-cooling-comes-of-age-withaset
ek%E2%80%99s-sealed-systems.aspx

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Exam Code: HP2-B111
Exam Name: Selling HP Printing Solutions Exam
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Exam Code: HP0-J63
Exam Name: Designing HP Backup Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-J65
Exam Name: Designing HP SAN Networking Solutions
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NO.1 What is the core concept of the HP Design-for-Environment program?
A. designing HP products with a concern for end-of-life disposal
B. designing HP products to be the least expensive on the market
C. designing HP products to be aesthetically pleasing
D. designing HP products to be made only from recycled products
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.destinationgreenit.com/hp-design-for-environment

NO.2 What is one way to study publically-available information about your customers?
A. Obtain annual financial reports from other verticals.
B. Obtain facilities spending and marketing budget information.
C. Use websites and annual reports.
D. Conduct a workshop with them.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
You don't need to conduct a workshop or obtain annual financial reports or even obtain facilities
spending and market budget information to study the information needed to understand your
customer. The information you need is available in detail on their websites and in their annual
reports. You'd get an overview of finances, marketing budget information and other relevant
information easily from their websites. Since this information is available publicly, customers put it
on the websites and publish annual reports.

NO.3 A customer says, "I need to reduce the amount of time I spend managing printers."
Which diagnostic question should you ask this customer?
A. What are the standard compliance regulations for your industry?
B. How are you automating color access and printing?
C. How do you monitor your printers on the networks?
D. Do you manage printer settings such as default duplex printing?
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer says, "I need to reduce my supplies and printing costs."
Which diagnostic question should you ask this customer?
A. What are the standard compliance regulations for your industry?
B. How are you controlling color access?
C. How do you secure your workstations over the network?
D. How do you manage scanners on the network?
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The customer said he wants to reduce supplies and printing costs. By controlling the amount of
color printed documents, customer can reduce supplies and printing costs since color prints taking
more resources than the black and white documents. Printing the document in simple black and
white can greatly reduce supplies and printing costs.

NO.5 Which statement is true about how customers typically view office printing costs?
A. Customers typically look at hardware costs, but they do not consider IT costs or the cost of
supplies.
B. Customers typically look at IT costs and the costs of supplies, but they do not consider hardware
costs.
C. Customers typically look at hardware and IT costs, but they do not consider costs of supplies.
D. Customers typically look at the costs of supplies and hardware, but they do not consider IT costs.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Most customers look for the total cost of ownership. The normally include supplies and hardware
but they ignore the costs of personnel working to make sure the printing solutions work properly
and without any problems. IT costs are not generally considered.

NO.6 What is an example of business networking?
A. attending an online workshop for professional development
B. following the links on a company's website
C. reading a company's tweets
D. using LinkedIn to find common contacts
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which step of creating an optimization plan allows you to determine which types of devices
the customer needs?
A. Obtain an accurate inventory of devices
B. Consolidate models, manufacturers, and tasks.
C. Monitor for efficient users.
D. Collect usage history for each device and look for duplication of tasks.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which description of an imaging and printing solution is accurate?
A. a review of all available software that works with imaging and printing devices
B. a long-term strategic plan
C. a combination of hardware and software that addresses the problem
D. a new printer
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The imaging and printing solution is a combination of hardware and software working togetherto
address paper intensive business processes.The imaging solution is normally a scanner andthe
printing solution is a printer. These machines use specific software to work and provide ahost of
tools to address paper intensive business problems.

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Exam Code: HP3-X12
Exam Name: HP Retail Point of Sales Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-S33
Exam Name: Advanced Integration and Management of HP Server Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-Y45
Exam Name: Architecting HP Network Solutions
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NO.1 Which HP POS peripheral is available for the ap5000 AiO POS System only?
A. HP POS Keyboard with MSR
B. 10.4 inch customer-facing display
C. HP USB Thermal Receipt Printer (single station)
D. Two-line display (Vacuum Fluorescent Display)
Answer: D

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Reference:ftp://ftp.moteselectronics.com/HP/All%20In%20One%20PC/AP5000%20(POS%20Syst
em)/hp%20ap5000.pdf(page 1, see second bullet)

NO.2 The HP RPOS 50C Thermal Kit supports 65 watt processors only. Which statements are also
true if this option is installed in an HP rp5800 Retail System1? (Select two.)
A. Low-profile expansion cards only can be installed in the system.
B. The serial ports cannot operate in powered mode.
C. A secondary hard drive cannot be installed in the system.
D. An internal optical drive cannot be installed in the system.
E. Expansion cards cannot be installed in the system
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 What is the easiest way for a customer to reprogram the keys on an HP USB POS Keyboard?
A. Locate the instructions on the HP website
B. Refer to the printed instructions in the User Guide
C. Use HP Designer on the HP POS Peripherals Software CD
D. Use the online help that is furnished with the keyboard
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?lang=en&cc=us&t
a skId=120&prodSeriesId=3375926&prodTypeId=12454&objectID=c01686874

NO.4 Which POS peripherals are supported by Windows native operating system drivers without
the need for additional drivers? (Select two.)
A. HP Pole Display
B. HP Standard Weight Scale
C. HP Laser Barcode Scanner
D. HP Thermal Receipt Printer
E. HP USB Magnetic Stripe Reader
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 What must a customer do to use the COM ports for a powered device on a standard
(noncustomized) HP rp5700 POS System?
A. Set the jumpers on the system board for powered operation.
B. Plug a powered device into the COM port which auto senses the voltage.
C. Configure the powered device to draw power through the COM port.
D. Request a service call for the powered configuration service (GH655AV).
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/12703_na/12703_na.PDF(see the
paragraph on page 17)

NO.6 Which setup utility menu would you use to configure the SATA settings for an HP ap5000 AiO
POS System?
A. Power menu
B. Security menu
C. Advanced menu
D. Storage menu
Answer: C

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Reference:ftp://ftp.moteselectronics.com/HP/All%20In%20One%20PC/AP5000%20(POS%20Syst
em)/hp%20ap5000.pdf(page 9, SATA configuration)

NO.7 How do you awaken an HP ap5000 AiO POS System from a low power (sleep) state? (Select
Two.)
A. Press any keyboard key
B. Move the mouse-E1
C. Press the power button.
D. Touch the touchscreen.
E. Press Ctrl/S.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 A customer says that the red power LED on their HP rp5800 Retail System is blinking
sequentially three times and the system will not boot. Where are the best resources to locate
instructions on interpreting and resolving this condition? (Select two)
A. HP IT Resource Center
B. HP Business Support Page
C. HP Channel Service Network
D. HP Customer Support Portal
E. HP Partner Services Media Library
Answer: B,D

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Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED EXPERT -REPLICATION SOLUTIONS ARCHITECT
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Exam Code: HH0-130
Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Storage Fondations
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NO.1 Which three actions can be performed with Storage Navigator 2 on a VSP? (Choose three.)
A. Define migration policies.
B. Provision the storage system.
C. View system alerts.
D. Acquire logs.
E. Set System Option Modes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 A company has purchased a HUS VM storage system and they want to connect it to their
existing
AIX and Windows servers. Which HUS VM feature will allow these hosts to co-exist on the same
CHB ports?
A. Port Aggregation
B. Shared Memory Paths
C. High Speed Port Mode
D. Host Group
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your customer has purchased Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM) to support their Service
Level Agreement targets. HTSM will be used to migrate data between their VSP and HUS
systems. Which type of migration will be performed?
A. non-disruptive volume migration based on conditions
B. dynamic file migration based on conditions
C. non-disruptive file level migration based on conditions
D. dynamic "page" level migration based on I/O load
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer would like to deploy a new HUS system with Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP).
They would like to control the amount of over provisioning from their HDP Pools by not allowing
more DP-Vols to be created beyond a certain percentage. Which over-provisioning threshold can
an administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Early Alert
B. Warning
C. Limit
D. Depletion Alert
Answer: C

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NO.5 A HUS VM customer requires a tool set to gather and report on application service level
objectives
and storage performance. Which package should the customer use?
A. HUS VM Virtual Partition Manager Package
B. HUS VM Analytics Package
C. HUS VM Mobility Package
D. HUS VM Local Protection Package
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two components of a storage cluster in a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Front-End Directors (FED)
B. Fiber Switches (FSW)
C. Virtual Storage Directors (VSD)
D. Service Processors (SVP)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What are two valid Hitachi Data Ingestor (HDI) configuration options? (Choose two.)
A. as a single node
B. as a n+1 cluster
C. as a VMware appliance
D. as a Hyper-V appliance
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What are two advantages of TrueCopy Extended Distance replication? (Choose two.)
A. It has no data loss.
B. It provides extended de-duplication.
C. It provides write order integrity.
D. It provides consistency group support.
Answer: C,D

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