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Exam Code: M2050-246
Exam Name: IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What provides the capability to rapidly deliver new web concepts or delineated brand
sites via asset
sharing on a common platform?
A. Personalization
B. Social integration
C. Partnership with affiliates
D. Extended sites
Answer: B

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NO.2 Smarter Commerce capabilities are packaged and delivered as what?
A. A single, high-value, shrink-wrapped, solution for commerce.
B. Middleware components requiring additional business function software.
C. Software, hardware, and services to deliver specific business processcapabilities which
support each
phase of the commerce cycle.
D. A simple monolithic application for each phase of the commerce cycle.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are Smarter Commerce Buy
Offerings focused on?
A. Visibility and optimization in the supply chain.
B. Customer buying patterns.
C. Effective 1:1 marketing to facilitate customer purchase decisions.
D. Buy online, pick-up in the store (BOPIS).
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following Smarter Commerce Offerings is a core part of delivering a
customer
buy-online, pick-up in store (BOPIS) capability?
A. Social Analytics.
B. Distributed Order Management.
C. Logistics Management.
D. Customer Self Service.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In order to effectively implement ___________ you must be able to aggregate line items
from individual
orders to send to suppliers and then separate them out again for customer fulfillment.
A. store operations
B. cross-channel order management
C. social marketing
D. supply chain visibility
Answer: D

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NO.6 Segmentation, offer management, interaction history, real-time behavioral targeting,
and contact
optimization are examples of capabilities delivered as part of what?
A. Data mining.
B. Social platform.
C. Central decisioning.
D. Customer clustering.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The web marketing continuous optimization platform can drive which of the following
capabilities?
A. Optimize paid search advertising.
B. Automate customer recommendations based on LIVE profile.
C. Target through online advertisements based on interaction history.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You can create a powerful self-service experience for the customer using?
A. The IBM Customer Experience Suite
B. The IBM Commerce Framework
C. The IBM Enterprise Service Process Manager
D. The IBM Customer Service System
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C4120-781
Exam Name: PureFlex Technical Support V1
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NO.1 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent
Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer
realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive
(.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains
information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by
the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The
requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are
required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing
environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing
environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule
status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with
status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String
comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with
comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Storage Solutions V3
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Exam Code: C2070-586
Exam Name: IBM Certified Solution Designer - Case Manager v5.1
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Exam Code: C4120-782
Exam Name: IBM PureFlex Systems Sales V2
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NO.1 A PureFlex business partner sales specialist is dealing with a prospective customer for a Flex
System where both x86 and POWER7 compute nodes are required. Which of the following should
the sales specialist understand for this prospect if they plan to order via AAS?
A. Flex System configurations must be ordered with an RPQ
B. Flex System configurations will require a storage node or external storage
C. Flex System configurations require business partner certification for Power Systems
D. Flex System configurations requires x86 node and POWER7 nodes reside in different chassis
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a meeting with a prospect customer it was mentioned that they are interested in an
integrated system sold by Oracle that includes servers, networking, management, and virtualization.
To which Oracle solution is the customer referring?
A. Vblock
B. Exalogic
C. vCloud Director
D. Unified Computing System (UCS)
Answer: B

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6. When is a SPORE or RPQ request used when designing a PureFlex Express system?
A. To manage two chassis from a single FSM
B. Change the on order system to PureFlex Enterprise
C. Create a hybrid solution which will provide additional pre-install configuration
D. Design criteria dictates interoperability with a device outside of supported combinations
Answer: D

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7. A customer wants to purchase a PureFlex Power solution and has the need to load software
onto the nodes via a DVD. What option does the customer have to satisfy this need?
A. USB DVD device
B. DVD-ROM SAS/SATA device
C. Each node has an integrated DVD
D. Chassis comes with an integrated DVD
Answer: A

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NO.3 A prospect asks their PureFlex sales professional a product feature question and the salesman
does not know the answer. Which of the following resources should the sales professional contact?
A. Techline
B. Supportline
C. Competeline
D. IBM Support Center
Answer: A

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NO.4 A PureFlex prospect is excited about the PureFlex solution but is concerned about
implementation. Which of the following FSM capabilities simplify deploying PureFlex?
A. Set up wizards, element discovery, configuration patterns
B. Firmware or microcode update automatically without manual intervention
C. Both the network and storage will auto-configure without manual intervention
D. Product set up requires only plugging in network connections and powering up the chassis.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A PureFlex prospect is concerned about migration of data from their existing storage to the
Storwize V7000. Which of the following is a key enabling function of the Storwize V7000 and
PureFlex storage node to support migration of data from existing supported external storage
systems to the PureFlex environment?
A. Easy Tier
B. FlashCopy
C. Volume Copy
D. Storage Virtualization
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2010-597
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NO.1 Which workflow type gets executed by an association of two objects?
A. synchronous workflow using temporary data
B. synchronous workflow using permanent data
C. asynchronous workflow using temporary data
D. asynchronous workflow using permanent data
Answer: D

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NO.2 A navigation collection is a hierarchical structure that contains what?
A. portal sections
B. navigation items
C. only menu items
D. only related navigation items
Answer: B

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NO.3 An existing portal must be modified so that a new navigation collection will display in the
portal. Assuming that a navigation collection of type Quick Links exists and is populated with
navigation items, what additional new element must be created to display this collection in the
existing portal?
A. Portal
B. Portal Section
C. Navigation Item
D. Navigation Collection
Answer: B

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NO.4 Several organization records appear in reports but do not appear in the Organization hierarchy.
What should be the first item to validate during the troubleshooting process for the records in
question?
A. verify that the records have the required Primary Organization association to the organization's
root node in the hierarchy
B. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Included In and Includes to
other records in the hierarchy
C. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Is Parent Of and Is Child Of
to other records in the hierarchy
D. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Primary Location and
Primary Location Of to other records in the hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where are the classifications' hierarchical parents to child associations created?
A. In the Form Builder
B. In the Data Modeler
C. In the Association Manager
D. In the State Family Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can a list be sorted to display more frequent values first?
A. In the Data Modeler, set the sequence order in the properties of the List field.
B. Values can only be sorted in ascending and descending order and cannot be ordered individually.
C. In the Form layout, use the Manual Sort option to arrange the entries in the desired order
sequence.
D. In the List Manager, use arrows from the Order column to move entries to the desired order
sequence.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the process to hide a state transition action from view in a form?
A. Select Secondary Action in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
B. Deselect Default Display in the state transition properties in Form Builder
C. Select Secondary Action in the state transition properties in Form Builder.
D. Configure Includes/Excludes in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
Answer: B

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NO.8 When a transition occurs to move a record into a tri Active state, the expected behavior is that
the form is in a read-only state. This is not happening. What is the issue with the Read-Only
property?
A. It is not configured in the Sub Action properties.
B. It is not configured in the Form Section properties.
C. It is not configured in the Business Object properties.
D. It is not configured in the State Transition properties for at least one transition.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two concepts guide iterative development? (Choose two.)
A.early completion of simple features, to show progress to the customer
B.informal plans, allowing features to be moved to future iterations
C.early baselining of architecture, allowing stability in planning, content and organization
D.scope validation by stakeholders, to account for their needs
Correct:C D

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NO.2 In planning for iterative development, the Project Plan is referred to as a _____.
A.roadmap
B.fine-grained plan
C.detailed plan
D.risk management tool
Correct:A

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NO.3 Why does the risk-time profile decline more rapidly for iterative development than
waterfall
development? (Choose two.)
A.Iterative development exposes design flaws and enables resolution earlier in the lifecycle.
B.With iterative development, customer satisfaction is maintained by early, incremental
deliveries of
capability.
C.In iterative development, the software architecture can be revised in any iteration to
support new
features and overcome performance problems.
D.Iterative development allows key, non-functional requirements (i.e. performance, fault
tolerance and
maintainability) to be addressed early in development.
Correct:A D

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NO.4 Which is part of the evaluation criteria for successful completion of the Elaboration
phase?
A.A final set of requirements is agreed upon.
B.All detailed design documents are reviewed.
C.The architecture is stable.
D.Less than 50% of project budget is expended.
Correct:C

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NO.5 The Iteration Plan belongs to _____.
A.the Project Management domain and the Specification work product kind
B.the Assessment domain and the Project Management work product kind
C.the Planning domain and the Project Management work product kind
D.the Project Management domain and the Plan work product kind
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which three work products belong in the Project Management discipline? (Choose
three.)
A.Risk Management Plan
B.Business Case
C.Test Evaluation Summary Report
D.Project Plan
Correct:A B D

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NO.7 What are three characteristics of a task? (Choose three.)
A.is work a role performs
B.occurs once in an iteration
C.has granularity of a few hours to a few days
D.usually affects only one or a small number of work products
Correct:A C D

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NO.8 In the Construction phase, what are the two areas of focus of the Iteration Plan?
(Choose two.)
A.development efficiency
B.project scoping
C.architectural risks
D.product quality
Correct:A D

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NO.1 What is the correct product install order for IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo)?
A. latest Maximo fix pack, any industry solution, latest fix pack interim fix
B. latest Maximo fix pack, any industry solution, interim fix for earlier fix pack
C. latest Maximo fix pack interim fix,any industry solution, latest Maximo fix pack
D. latest Maximo fix pack interim fix, latest Maximo fix pack, any industry solution
Answer: A

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NO.2 Users can create and save their own queries and can share queries with other users. What
should be done in order to reduce the likelihood of queries negatively impacting performance?
A. create efficient default queries
B. periodically truncate the default query table
C. add an Order By clause to inefficient queries
D. remove the text search index on columns called by the query
Answer: A

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NO.3 When enabling Application Server Security in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5,which
property value must be set?
A. mxe.encrypted=true
B. mxe.encrypted=false
C. mxe.useAppServerSecurity=1
D. mxe.useAppServerSecurity=0
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which design principles should be followed when application clustering is intended to address
fault tolerance in the environment to some level for user interface (UI) session handling?
A. The High Availability (HA) management design should include vertical and horizontal clustering.
The UIsystems should be vertically clustered. The other Java Virtual Machines (JVMs) should be
horizontally clustered.
B. The HA management design should include horizontal clustering with a minimum of 2 systems
and half the total number of UIJVM on each system.
C. The HA management design should have the number of JVMs needed to support the load of the
system from a UIperspective as double what is required and be vertically clustered.
D. The HA management design should have the number of JVMs needed to support the load of the
system from a UIperspective and be able to support the UIload with a single JVM removed.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which system property is used to log SQL statement execution time?
A. mxe.db.SQLRunTirne
B. mxe.db.fetchResultTime
C. mxe.db.logSQLTimeLimit
D. rnxe.db.fetchResultLogLirnit
Answer: C

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NO.6 A user, administrator, is undertaking the installation of a new IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.5 environment on a Windows 2008 Server. The default installation path will be C:\IBM\SMP .
The installation has stopped and the CTGInstallTraceOO.log indicates that the updateDB failed.
Where is the Updatedb.log located?
A. C:\IBM\SMP\logs
B. C:\IBM\SMP\solutions\logs
C. C:\IBM\SMP\maximo\tools\maximo\log
D. C:\IBM\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\log
Answer: C

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NO.7 The configuration of the IBM Maximo Asset Management v7.5 application server security
requires which two files to be configured? (Choose two.)
A. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\META-INF\application.xml
B. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\META-INF\deployment-application.xml
C. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\mboweb\webmodule\WEB-INF\web.xml
D. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\mboejb\ejbmodule\META-INF\ejb-jar.xml
E. ibm\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\maximouiweb\webmodule\WEB-INF\web.xml
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Regarding the Run Configuration Step screen - which option requires running taskrunner.bat?
A. configure SMTP host
B. deploy application files manually later
C. defer the update of the Maximo database
D. copy files now, perform the configuration step later
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which area of the IBM Protocol Analysis Module technology prevents Skype from
using enterprise
network bandwidth?
A. Data Security
B. Application Control
C. Threat Detection and Prevention
D. Client-side Application Protection
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer wants to change the severity of an IBM Protocol Analysis Module signature
from high to low
in a given protection domain. Which policy meets this requirement?
A. Security Events
B. Open Signatures
C. System Updates
D. X-Force Virtual Patch
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where in the IBM Security SiteProtector System Console can a customer find the link
status of the
Security Interfaces on an IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. the networkinfo section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
B. the Intrusion Prevention section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
C. the Security Interfaces section on the Health Summary Network tab in the appliance
Properties screen
D. the Internal Communication section on the Health Summary System tab in the appliance
Properties
screen
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which file can be imported or compiled, and defines the format of SNMP traps for
security events
responses in the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. iss.mib
B. ibm.mib
C. linux.mib
D. snmp.mib
Answer: A

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NO.5 Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) exclusions have been added to a Protection
Domain, however
events from those VLANs seem to be generated anyway. What is the most likely cause?
A. A VLAN cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
B. Multiple VLANs cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
C. Incorrect interfaces have been specified in a custom Protection Domain.
D. The same exception has not been created on the Global Protection Domain.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which interface mode is required in order for quarantine response rules to work?
A. Bypass Mode
B. Inline Protection Mode
C. Inline Simulation Mode
D. Passive Monitoring Mode
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which file is accessed on the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3
appliance to
determine why it is Active with Errors in IBM Security SiteProtector System?
A. Boot log file
B. Kernel log file
C. Engine0 log file
D. Messages log file
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two restrictions placed on remote users using IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention
System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot reboot the appliance.
B. They cannot log in to the local console.
C. They cannot change the local user account passwords.
D. They cannot save changes to policies in the Web interface.
E. They cannot log in to the appliance when the authentication server is down.
Answer: C,E

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