2014年8月29日星期五

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Exam Code: A2010-023
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Tivoli Support Provider Tools and Processes
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Exam Code: P2090-080
Exam Name: IBM ISW-9.7 & Smart Analytics Technical Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which is NOT a target audience for an InfoSphere Warehouse opportunity?
A. New SAP implementation
B. Existing DB2 9 customers
C. Small and mid-sized businesses looking for their first Data Warehouse
D. Companies looking for a complete reporting solution that helps to create, manage, and deliver
reports
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following data flow palette operators DOES NOT have the capability of creating a
persistent DB2 table?
A. File Export
B. Table Target
C. Data Station
D. Bulk Load Target
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the difference between the IBM Smart Analytics System 5600 and the 5600S?
A. The 5600S has two extra SAN Storage Switches
B. The 5600S is the only one that comes with a System x Server
C. The 5600S uses SSD Storage Devices
D. The 5600S comes with Services
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about IBM Smart Analytics System modules is FALSE?
A. An IBM Smart Analytics System is limited to a maximumof 12 modules, so users must carefully
choose which modules to include.
B. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to support system scalability and can be added
to the Smart Analytics System as needed to meet specific customer requirements.
C. IBMSmart Analytics System modules are designed to integrate with other modules in the system
to provide optimized performance to business analytics solutions.
D. IBM Smart Analytics System modules are designed to have different roles, such as modules for
BI,modules for warehouse data, modules for high availability failover, etc.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Workload Management component of InfoSphere Warehouse 9.7 provides
_________________.
A. control of individual database activities
B. control of concurrency of database activities
C. fine grained, light weight monitoring of database activities
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 A cube has been designed in Design Studio. What step(s) is(are) required to make it available
to an existing cube server?
A. Deploy metadata to the database
B. Add the cube to thecube server
C. Start the cube server and cube
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 What option of the InfoSphere Warehouse Administration Console'sSQL Warehousing menu is
used to immediately execute a deployed application?
A. Manage Control Flows ? Select a Control Flow ? Click Start Icon
B. Manage Applications ? Select an Application ? Click Start icon
C. Manage Instances ? Select an Instance ? Click Start Icon
D. Manage Applications ? Select an Instance ? Click Start icon
Answer: A

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NO.8 When preserving a mining model rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?When preserving amining model? rules in a relational table, which mining operator is
needed?
A. An annotator
B. A visualizer
C. An introspector
D. There is no function to do this.
Answer: C

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2014年8月28日星期四

C-TSCM52-66 Exam PDF, C-TSCM52-66 Exam Cost

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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NO.1 Which of the following are SAP Solution Manager usage scenarios?(Choose two)
A. Legacy system data mapping
B. Implementation of SAP solutions
C. User productivity monitoring
D. Service desk
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing?(Choose three)
A. The movement type short text and the reasons for movement
B. The indicator for automatic creation of storage location data in the material master record at the
time of the first goods receipt
C. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with the
movement type
D. The quantity and value updates for postings with the movement type
E. The account modification for transactions and events with active account grouping in the table of
account keys
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which are the configuration options that can be defined to post unplanned delivery
costs?(Choose three)
A. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to separate G/L accounts
B. The unplanned delivery costs are to be distributed prorated to calculated invoice items
C. The unplanned delivery costs can be posted by rules defined within a BAdI
D. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to a price difference account
E. The unplanned delivery costs are to be split in equal shares across the invoice items
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which procurement elements can be created in Purchasing with automatic purchase order
generation?(Choose two)
A. Requests for quotation (RFQ)
B. Contract release orders
C. Purchase orders
D. Delivery schedules
Answer: B,C

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6. Which value of the creation indicator is shown in the tab Contact person when you create a
purchase requisition manually?
A. Production Order
B. Direct procurement
C. Realtime
D. Material requirements planning
Answer: C

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7. Where do you define a fixed vendor for a specific period in time?
A. In the info record at client level (regular vendor)
B. In the quota arrangement at plant level
C. In the source list at plant level
D. In the material master at plant level
Answer: C

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8. What are characteristics of material valuation at the moving average price?(Choose two)
A. If you book a subsequent debit for a quantity higher than the total quantity of valuated stock
then a price difference posting is generated.
B. If the price in the purchase order is different from the moving average price then a price
difference posting is generated at goods receipt.
C. The moving average price is equal to the total value divided by total quantity of valuated stock.
D. Goods movements are always valuated based on the moving average price from the material
master record.
Answer: A,C

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9. You have received an order confirmation from a vendor.
What do you have to do before you can enter the confirmed delivery date and confirmed quantity in
a purchase order item?
A. Set the Goods Receipt indicator.
B. Set the Confirmation Received indicator in the header.
C. Use a confirmation control key in the relevant purchase order item.
D. Set the Acknowledgement Required indicator in the vendor master of the relevant vendor.
Answer: C

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10. What does an account group control when you create vendor master records?(Choose three)
A. The partner determination procedure
B. The definition whether the vendor master record is a one-time account or not
C. The possible data retention levels
D. The reconciliation account in general ledger
E. The possible payment terms
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In a vendor master record, you enter a different vendor as a partner with the partner role
(partner function) of Invoicing Party.
What is the function of this partner role in Materials Management?
A. This partner automatically receives copies of all messages relating to purchasing documents.
B. This partner is proposed when you enter an invoice with reference to purchase orders.
C. All unplanned delivery costs with reference to purchase orders are billed to this partner.
D. Return deliveries with reference to purchase orders must be sent to this partner.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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Exam Code: C_HANAIMP131
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA
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NO.1 Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
A. Block
B. Receive
C. Wait
D. Send
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to build an operation mapping using multiple mapping programs per direction.
Which restrictions do you have to consider?
A. The output of each mapping program must fit the target message type.
B. The mapping programs are processed in the specified sequence from top to bottom.
C. The checkbox must be enabled in interface determination to preserve the sequence during the
runtime.
D. All the mapping programs have to belong to the same namespace.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Web-services-related protocol is supported by SAP NetWeaver PI 7.31?
A. Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
B. WS-Reliable Messaging (WS-RM)
C. Representational state transfer (REST)
D. Open Data Protocol (OData)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which conversion parameters are available in the SOAP adapter?(Choose two)
A. Keep Headers
B. Do Not Use SOAP Envelope
C. Sync/Async Bridge
D. File Content Conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes?(Choose two)
A. When collecting messages
B. When querying databases
C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 You are working on a dual-stack system and want to configure an integration scenario with
one sender and two receivers. Each receiver uses two different service interfaces. The WS adapter is
used for each receiver. The sender provides an IDoc from an ABAP system.
How many sender agreements do you have to configure?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the standard SplitByValue function?
A. To split the payload
B. To replicate a value of a field that occurs once
C. To insert context changes into a queue
D. To split a string into substrings
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services
Repository?(Choose two)
A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
Answer: C,E

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C_TPLM30_65 Braindumps, C_TBIT44_731 Exam Questions

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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NO.1 You want to build an operation mapping using multiple mapping programs per direction.
Which restrictions do you have to consider?
A. The output of each mapping program must fit the target message type.
B. The mapping programs are processed in the specified sequence from top to bottom.
C. The checkbox must be enabled in interface determination to preserve the sequence during the
runtime.
D. All the mapping programs have to belong to the same namespace.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the purpose of the standard SplitByValue function?
A. To split the payload
B. To replicate a value of a field that occurs once
C. To insert context changes into a queue
D. To split a string into substrings
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
A. Block
B. Receive
C. Wait
D. Send
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Advanced Adapter Engine is installed as a component on the Integration Server.
When would you install the non-central Advanced Adapter Engine?
A. When a firewall between the business system and the Integration Server prevents them from
communicating directly
B. When the business department requires Knowledge Management on a separate system
C. When you want to use cross-component business process management (ccBPM) in the Advanced
Adapter Engine
D. When you want to use the advanced monitoring capabilities of the Integration Engine
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are characteristics of enterprise services?(Choose two)
A. They are based on global data types.
B. They are semantically harmonized across applications.
C. They can be easily used as imported archive objects.
D. They can be used to extend BAPIs.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which conversion parameters are available in the SOAP adapter?(Choose two)
A. Keep Headers
B. Do Not Use SOAP Envelope
C. Sync/Async Bridge
D. File Content Conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services
Repository?(Choose two)
A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes?(Choose two)
A. When collecting messages
B. When querying databases
C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: VCPC550
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NO.1 Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter
Servers configured with linked mode?
A. Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B. Multisite Single Sign-On
C. Basic Single Sign-On
D. Single Sign-On with Linked Mode
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs to deploy several virtual machines. Storage contention between the
virtual machines should be managed by the VMkernel. Some of the virtual machines will use MSCS
and should be highly available across the ESXi 5.5 hosts.
Which two storage options meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. Fibre Channel
D. vSAN
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which two Identity Sources are available to add for vCenter Single Sign-On authentication?
(Choose two.)
A. LocalOS
B. OpenLDAP
C. NIS as an LDAP Server
D. VCMSDS
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 To avoid unnecessary planned downtime, what is the minimum version of VMware Tools that,
if installed, will decrease the need for virtual machine reboots following VMware Tools upgrades?
A. 5.5
B. 5.1
C. 5.0
D. 4.1
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is planning a vSphere infrastructure with the following specific networking
requirements:
The ability to shape inbound (RX) traffic
Support for Private VLANs (PVLANs)
Support for LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol)
What is the minimum vSphere Edition that will support these requirements?
A. vSphere Essentials Plus
B. vSphere Standard
C. vSphere Enterprise
D. vSphere Enterprise Plus
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?
A. Private VLAN
B. External Switch Tagging
C. Virtual Guest Tagging
D. Virtual Switch Tagging
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator is upgrading a vSphere Distributed Switch. The existing switch is version
5.0 and the administrator wants to upgrade to the latest version possible. The environment contains
several ESXi 5.1 hosts.
Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these
hosts? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B. Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D. Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What two IT infrastructure components are virtualized by vSphere Essentials? (Choose two.)
A. Networks
B. Applications
C. Storage
D. Management
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.2 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.5 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.6 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about transactions in Oracle Database 12c?
A. Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.
B. A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.
C. Multiple transactions cannot share the same extent in an undo tablespace.
D. If all the segments in an undo tablespace are used, transactions use system undo segments to
store undo data.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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NO.1 What represents the decimal equivalence of 11100101?
A. 5
B. 93
C. 177
D. 229
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which J-Web tab do you use to add licenses to the device?
A. "Configure"
B. "Troubleshoot"
C. "Monitor"
D. "Maintain"
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which command is used to display all output at once?
A. show interfaces | all
B. show interfaces | no-more
C. show interfaces | hold
D. show interfaces | display-all
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command is used to enable access to J-Web using HTTPS?
A. set system remote-access profile https
B. set services remote-access profile j-web-https
C. set system services web-management https
D. set services web-management j-web-https
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two statements accurately describe a broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast domains require that the participating devices connect to common switches or hubs.
B. Broadcast domains consist of devices reachable by frames addressed to the Layer 2 broadcast
address.
C. Broadcast domains require a gateway device such as a router.
D. Broadcast domains consist of devices that reside on the same VLAN.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 A packet is evaluated against three user-defined terms within a firewall filter and no match is
found.
What correctly describes the action the firewall filter will take for this packet?
A. The filter will permit the packet and take no additional action.
B. The filter will reject the packet and send an ICMP message back to the sender.
C. The filter will discard the packet and take no additional action.
D. The filter will permit the packet and write a log entry to the firewall log.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have been allocated a 192.168.100.0/ 22 network.
How many usable hosts are available?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 1024
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the role of route preference?
A. It is used as a tiebreaker when the same prefix is available through multiple protocols.
B. It is used to determine the preferred path to a given destination.
C. It is used to select the best route between multiple equal-cost paths.
D. It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding.
Answer: A

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