2014年10月26日星期日

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part4
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NO.1 Rivalry among existing firms in an industry is more likely to be strong when:
A. The industry is in the rapid growth stage.
B. Investment intensity is low.
C. A few firms are dominant.
D. Capacity must be expanded in large increments.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The intensity of rivalry and the threat of entry may vary with the extent of capacity expansion
dictated by the need to achieve economics of scale. If it must be made in large increments to
achieve economics of scale, competition will be more intense. The need for large-scale expansion to
achieve production efficiency may result in an excess of industry capacity over demand. However, if
capacity may be expanded in small increments, industry capacity is less likely to be excessive, the
supply-demand balance is less likely to be upset, and price cutting is less likely to be necessary.

NO.2 The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to
group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another
person's work?
A. Loyalty cliques.
B. Destructive competition.
C. Empire building.
D. Posturing.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Posturing is an attempt to make a good impression, for example, by taking credit for others' work or
seeking to stay one jump ahead of a rival.

NO.3 Some studies show that managers spend 60 to 70% of their time communicating and that
nearly 60% of that time is spent listening. Listening effectiveness is best increased by:
A. Resisting both internal and external distractions.
B. Waiting to review key concepts until the speaker is through talking.
C. Tuning out messages that do not seem to fit the meeting purpose.
D. Factoring in biases to evaluate the information being given.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Concentrating on what the speaker is saying is critical to effective listening. This result is best
achieved by resisting internal and external distractions. Physical distractions such as noise, a
tendency to be overly aware of the speaker's physical and other differences from the listener,
focusing on interesting details at the expense of major points, or emotional reactions to a statement
with which the listener disagrees should be avoided.

NO.4 For a multinational firm, which of the following is a disadvantage of an ethnocentric staffing
policy in which all key management positions are filled by parent-company nationals?
A. An ethnocentric staffing policy significantly raises compensation, training, and staffing costs.
B. An ethnocentric staffing policy produces resentment among the firm's employees in host
countries.
C. An ethnocentric staffing policy limits career mobility for parent-country nationals.
D. An ethnocentric staffing policy isolates headquarters from foreign subsidiaries.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
An ethnocentric staffing policy has the advantage that expatriates may understand the objectives,
policies, and procedures of the parent firm better than local employees do.
However, ethnocentrism in hiring has the following disadvantages, among others:
(1) Expatriate managers have difficulty in adapting to a new culture, language, and physical
environment;
(2)training and relocation costs may be high;
(3)host-country governments prefer local control;
(4)the morale and performance of host-country employees will suffer.

NO.5 Which of the following concepts is not consistent with a successful authoritarian organization?
A. Each subordinate should only have one superior.
B. Superiors may have as many subordinates as possible within the superior's span of control.
C. Responsibility may be delegated.
D. The hierarchy of authority should be precisely defined.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Taylor, Fayol, and other traditionalists advocated the creation of authoritarian organizations. One of
the criteria for success was the ability to delegate authority but not responsibility. Responsibility
should always remain with the person who made the decision.

NO.6 Dutch researcher Geert Hofstede has examined the cultural dimensions of organizational
behavior in 40 countries. The United States ranked the highest in which dimension?
A. Power distance.
B. Uncertainty avoidance.
C. Individualism.
D. Masculinity.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The individualism-collectivism dimension addresses whether the organization or individual must
meet his/her own security needs.

NO.7 The General Electric (GE) portfolio model for competitive analysis of strategic business units
(SBUs) should be compared with the Boston Consulting Croup's growth-share matrix. The GE model:
A. Is a matrix with two variables:relative market share and market growth rate.
B. Calculates an index for each of its two variables.
C. Considers such factors for business strength as market size, growth rate, and price levels.
D. Considers such factors for market attractiveness as market share, growth rate, and marketing
skills.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The GE model is a multifactor portfolio matrix with two variables. Business strength or competitive
position (BUS) is on one axis, and market attractiveness (MAT) is on the other. BUS is classified as
strong, medium, or weak, and MAT is classified as high, medium, or low. Thus, the matrix in this
model is 3 x 3 and has nine cells. SBUs are shown in the matrix as circles. Circle size is directly
proportional to the size of the related market, with a shaded portion in the circle that represents
the SBU's market share. To measure BUS and MAT, the firm must isolate the multiple factors
affecting each, quantify them, and create an index. Factors will vary with each business. The
measurements will provide the values on the axes of the matrix.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

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NO.1 Which two permissions are required in your application to use Google Analytics service?
A. <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission
android:name="android.permission.READ_PHONE_STATE ">
B. <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission
android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE">
C. <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission
android:name="com.android.vending.CHECK_LICENSE ">
D. <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.CHECK_LICENSE" /> <uses-permission
android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE">
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is true about the stthe ate of the running application when user starts
buying product using in-app billing technique?
A. The running application from is stopped.
B. The running application gets destroyed.
C. The running application is paused.
D. Running application is not affected, as the buying is done through the Google play's live service. It
just requires the key that the user has generated against the application.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following type of accounts is required to upload paid applications on Google Play?
A. Google Wallet Merchant Account.
B. Google Wallet Account.
C. Wallet Merchant Account.
D. Google Wallet Payment Account.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Upon completion of a purchase using Google Play in-app billing, the result is returned to your
activity.
Which method you should override to handle the returned result?
A. onActivityResult.
B. onResultReturned.
C. onPurchaseFinished.
D. OnIabPurchaseFinished
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following happens after an in-app purchase is completed?
A. User is provided with a list of similar products in Google Play.
B. The application is closed and a sale confirmation message is sent to user.
C. The application runs from the same place it was left.
D. User is asked to provide an application review on Google Play.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is ad mediation?
A. The name of an advertisement platform.
B. A technique to create an advertisement using the application's description.
C. A technique that sends ad requests to multiple ad networks.
D. A method to choose the best ad placement size in an application.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which one of these methods makes the ADT emulator a testing device? Note that "request" is
an instance of class AdRequest.
A. request.addTestDevice(AdRequest.TEST_DEVICE);
B. request.addDevice(AdRequest.TEST_EMULATOR);
C. request.addTestDevice(AdRequest.TEST_EMULATOR);
D. request.makeTestRequest();
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT true about the products sold from inside the application?
A. Products sold inside an application are digital items that are offered for sale by the developer.
B. They are non-refundable
C. Digital items cannot be sold using Google Play's IAB service.
D. Products are programmatically delivered by the developer and not Google Play.
Answer: C

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NO.1 You are working on a dual-stack system and want to configure an integration scenario with
one sender and two receivers. Each receiver uses two different service interfaces. The WS adapter is
used for each receiver. The sender provides an IDoc from an ABAP system.
How many sender agreements do you have to configure?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes? (Choose two)
A. When collecting messages
B. When querying databases
C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services Repository?
(Choose two)
A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which conversion parameters are available in the SOAP adapter? (Choose two)
A. Keep Headers
B. Do Not Use SOAP Envelope
C. Sync/Async Bridge
D. File Content Conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following are characteristics of enterprise services? (Choose two)
A. They are based on global data types.
B. They are semantically harmonized across applications.
C. They can be easily used as imported archive objects.
D. They can be used to extend BAPIs.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 You want to build an operation mapping using multiple mapping programs per direction.
Which restrictions do you have to consider?
A. The output of each mapping program must fit the target message type.
B. The mapping programs are processed in the specified sequence from top to bottom.
C. The checkbox must be enabled in interface determination to preserve the sequence during the
runtime.
D. All the mapping programs have to belong to the same namespace.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the standard SplitByValue function?
A. To split the payload
B. To replicate a value of a field that occurs once
C. To insert context changes into a queue
D. To split a string into substrings
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
A. Block
B. Receive
C. Wait
D. Send
Answer: B

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2014年10月23日星期四

A2010-538 Actual Test, C2150-006 Exam Cram, C2010-538 Practice Exam

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NO.1 Which two statements are true for service type account defaults? (Choose two.)
A. Account defaults must be hard-coded values or a person attribute.
B. Service type account defaults must be specified for each created service.
C. Service type account defaults are global and are inherited by a service when the service is created.
D. Subsequent changes to the account defaults on the service type are not reflected in existing
services.
E. Account defaults for an existing service can be modified by changing the service type account
defaults
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which three types of files control the appearance of the Self-Service user interface? (Choose
three.)
A. Properties configuration files
B. Java Archive (JAR) configuration files
C. Java Key Store (JKS) configuration files
D. HyperText Markup Language (HTML) flies
E. Java Server Pages (JSP) configuration files
F. Cascading Style Sheet (CSS) configuration files
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.3 The account and password design document indicates that new accounts and passwords are
initially set up by a designated security officer Therefore, the notification is sent to the security
officer and Is not sent to each account owner. Which two options can be configured to meet this
requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Modify the existing e-mail notification templates to add the custom recipient.
B. Design a new e-mail notification template and add to the list of available workflow notification
templates.
C. Configure a mail node in the operation workflow where the participant is a person with an e-mail
account.
D. The IBM Tivoli Identity Manager administrator would disable the New Account Notification
template and the New Password template in Configuration > Properties > Notification Templates.
E. The IBM Tivoli Identity Manager administrator would disable the New Account Notification
template and the New Password template in Configure System > Workflow Notification Properties.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which two options are part of the customization design process? (Choose two.)
A. Test the customization.
B. Create a customization prototype.
C. Document the customization code.
D. Determine the customization scope.
E. Determine the feasibility of the customization
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 A. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Exchange are provisioned immediately.
An approval request is sent to the Payroll system owner for approval of the Payroll account. An
approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval of the Sales account. An approval
request is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for approval of the Global Administrator
account and for justification information.
B. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Exchange are provisioned immediately.
An approval request is sent to the employee's first-line manager for approval of the Payroll account.
An approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval of the Sales account. An
approval request is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for approval of the Global
Administrator account and for justification information.
C. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Exchange are provisioned immediately.
An approval request is sent to the peer of the employee's first-line manager for approval of the
Payroll account. An approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval of the Sales
account. An approval request is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for approval of the
Global Administrator account and for justification information.
D. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Human Resources are provisioned
immediately. An approval request Is sent to the peer of the employee's first-line manager for
approval of the Payroll account. An approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval
of the Sales account. An approval request Is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for
approval of the Global Administrator account and for justification information.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding the function that post office configuration can provide?
A. The post office template can be cloned to reuse as different types of aggregate templates.
B. It allows a test of aggregation to be performed with chosen notification style from the
administrative console.
C. It controls the volume of e-mail notifications if post office is enabled globally and Is not
disallowed by Workflow activities.
D. It provides the capability to configure an alert facility to indicate that e-mail notifications are not
being sent to the mail server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two steps are required to independently install IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator (Tivoli
Directory Integrator) on a separate computer? (Choose two.)
A. Read the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) release notes relating to support
levels of Tivoli Directory Integrator and fixes required.
B. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, the agentless adapters and the adapter profiles are
automatically installed on the computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager.
C. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, the agentless adapters are automatically installed.
Manually install the adapter profiles on the computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager.
D. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, manually install the 5.1 agentless adapters provided
with the product on the computer that hosts Tivoli Directory Integrator. Manually install the adapter
profiles on the computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager.
E. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, the agentless adapters are automatically installed on the
computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager. Import the adapter profiles using the Import/Export
facility on the Tivoli Identity Manager administrative console.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 When migrating IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) from a test to a
production environment, which task is valid?
A. Export all the LDAP user accounts from test to production.
B. Use the Import/Export feature to migrate the Tivoli Identity Manager configuration.
C. Assign the Tivoli Identity Manager test server the same host name as the production server.
D. Copy all the IBM Tivoli Directory Server data files to the Tivoli Identity Manager production
system
Answer: B

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NO.1 Infosphere Guardium Data Encryption (GDE) addresses compliance at the files system level
through?
A. File and Volume Encryption
B. Database Encryption
C. Policy Based Access Control to Encrypted Data
D. All of them
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer tells you that they have already have a security solution and they do not need to
buy another one. What do you tell them?
A. Other solutions are single purpose and don't scale with business growth or across databases, data
types and computing models. They can't be managed centrally or build defense in depth.
B. Other solutions are of lower quality and do not provide the premier functionality of IBM products
C. Disengage from the client
D. Ask them to discuss Guardium with their current security vendor
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which is a benefit of using Guardium DAM instead of Database Logging?
A. Guardium DAM is less expensive that Database logging
B. Turning Database Logging on will cause a performance hit to the Database
C. Database Logging is used for providing results in real time
D. There is no benefit
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following regulations does Guardium NOT help address?
A. PCI-DSS
B. SOX
C. Volker Rule
D. HIPAA
Answer: C

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NO.5 The customer needs to provide PCI compliance controls to encrypt the PCI PAN data inside of
DB2, Oracle and SQL Server. Which product do you recommend to the customer?
A. Guardium Data Encryption
B. Guardium Database Activity Monitoring
C. Guardium Vulnerability Assessment
D. Guardium Data Redaction
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is the impact of locking model calendars?
A. It affects calculations partitioned by the same calendar.
B. It has no effect on any calculations in the model.
C. It affects every calculation in the model regardless of calendars used.
D. It only affects calculations related to payout.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When using an effective dated table as a source for a calculation, which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Join start and end date of the effective dated table to a single date.
B. Join the calendar table to the effective dated table.
C. Join on both effective dates.
D. Join an effective dated table to another effective dated table (not Time).
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 How does information from the Web client reach the database server?
A. from the Admin client
B. from the Web Application server
C. from the CognosICMService
D. from the Web Application server to the CognosICMService
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which table type is built by joining one or more tables and calculations together?
A. Data
B. Hierarchy
C. Custom
D. View
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In Presenter, when preparing data sources for the report shown in the exhibit, which type of source
must be created to produce the subtotals by payee?
A. Data Source
B. Subtotal Source
C. Aggregate Transformation
D. Computed Row
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which table property can be changed after it is saved?
A. name
B. description
C. primary key
D. type
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which two situations would you perform the Optimize Model function? (Choose two.)
A. When a large volume of data has been imported.
B. When calculations have been modified.
C. When a calendar period has been locked.
D. When a large number of admin client users have been added.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What are two purposes of using components in Composer? (Choose two.)
A. for aesthetics
B. for granular application of security
C. for organization
D. for troubleshooting purposes
Answer: B,C

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