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Exam Code: HP0-Y23
Exam Name: HP (Deploying HP ProCurve Products )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You must configure an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch for installation in a network that uses RSTP to form
a single-instance Spanning Tree. What must you do to ensure that the 3500yl will participate in this
Spanning Tree?
A.Enter spanning-tree in the global configuration context.
B.Enter spanning-tree rstp in the configuration context for every VLAN the switch shares with another
switch.
C.Enter spanning-tree protocol-version rstp in the Spanning Tree configuration context.
D.Enter spanning-tree autodetect in the configuration context of every port where the switch will hear
Spanning Tree BPDUs.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch?
5406zl# configure terminal
A.The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B.The CLI provides an interface for configuring persistent terminal variables such as line length.
C.The CLI displays user input in the terminal.
D.The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory
default settings?
ProCurveSwitch# exit
A.All switch ports are enabled.
B.The user is logged out of the CLI.
C.The privilege level moves from Manager to Operator.
D.The CLI displays an authentication prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You must configure an IP interface for VLAN 22 on an HP ProCurve switch. Besides the IP address,
which parameter is required?
A.subnet mask
B.DNS server
C.default gateway
D.port members
Answer: A

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NO.5 What can be used as a destination when backing up the configuration on an HP ProCurve 3500yl
switch? (Select two.)
A.TFTP server
B.compact flash
C.neighboring switch
D.USB flash drive
E.FTP server
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Besides the CLI, which configuration interface enables an administrator to configure a user name for
access to the Manager privilege level on an HP ProCurve switch?
A.menu interface
B.web interface
C.setup interface
D.Management Interface Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which privilege level is indicated by the following prompt at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch?
3500yl-24G>
A.operator
B.interface
C.global configuration
D.manager
Answer: A

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NO.8 You must define a hostname on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A.interface
B.global configuration
C.manager
D.operator
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch?
(Select three.)
3500yl-24G#
A.enable IP routing
B.update switch software
C.disable ports
D.erase startup configuration
E.define management passwords
F.restart the switch
G.assign IP address to VLAN interface
Answer: BDF

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NO.10 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which CLI context will enable you to
perform this task?
A.router
B.manager
C.CLI passthrough
D.VLAN
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M31
Exam Name: HP (HP Quality Center 10.0 Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Your project manager wants to see a list of test instances and the results. Which type of report should
you create to accomplish this?
A. Cross Test Set
B. Execution
C. Test Plan
D. Execution Status
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which graph provides a visual overview of all the tests within a folder in the Test Plan Tree?
A. visual analysis graph
B. live analysis graph
C. trend analysis graph
D. summary graph
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is an advantage of using cross project customization?
A. Customizing a template project and applying the customization to Quality Center projects enables you
to standardize policies and procedures across projects.
B. Defining the users who can access the project and determining the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
C. Defining the users who can log in to the project and specifying the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
D. Customizing a template instance and applying the customization to Quality Center instances enables
you to standardize policies and procedures across instances.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which submodule enables you to define releases and cycles?
A. Management
B. Libraries
C. Cycles
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Place the test management process steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.7 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Identify the steps for creating a Release Tree and place them in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.8 Which types of attachments are allowed in Quality Center?
A. file, URL, system information, JPG, system attachments
B. JPG, file, URL, snapshot, TXT, clipboard, system attachments
C. file, URL, snapshot, system information, clipboard images
D. file, snapshot, clipboard images, JPG, clipboard snaps
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a release?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a group of test cycles that has been completed within a specific time period and in which all the high
priority defects have been closed
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: D

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NO.10 What does the term severity refer to?
A. importance level of the defect
B. impact of the defect on the release goals
C. impact of the defect on the test set
D. impact of the defect on system operation
Answer: D

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NO.11 You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which
graph type should you use to accomplish this?
A. progress graph
B. trend graph
C. requirements coverage graph
D. summary graph
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a cycle?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based
on the release timeline
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: C

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NO.13 What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. external reports and graphs
B. predefined reports and graphs
C. document generator
D. user-defined reports and graphs
E. custom reports and graphs
F. custom document generator
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 The CTO asks you to confirm the version of Quality Center your organization is using. From which
toolbar can you access this information?
A. Tools
B. About Quality Center Software
C. Help
D. HP Support Software
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which requirement type needs to be defined as a custom type?
A. business
B. group
C. functional
D. testing
E. security
Answer: E

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NO.16 You need to generate a report to monitor requirements and test coverage. Which report type should
you use to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Standard
B. Predefined
C. Non-standard
D. Non-customized
E. Custom
Answer: BE

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NO.17 What does the Management module address? (Select two.)
A. libraries
B. test resources
C. release models
D. dashboards
E. releases
Answer: AE

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NO.18 Which products or components integrate with Quality Center? (Select four.)
A. WinRunner scripts
B. VuGen scripts
C. LoadRunner scenarios
D. QAInspect
E. SiteScope
F. Diagnostic monitors
G. QuickTest Professional scripts
Answer: ACDG

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NO.19 Which features are specific to the Premier Edition of Quality Center?
A. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross project customization
B. synchronize, share test sets, share requirements, and cross project customization
C. share libraries, synchronize, share projects, and cross project customization
D. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross instance customization
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which submodule enables you to check the number of test instances that still need to run?
A. Cycle
B. Baseline
C. Library
D. Releases
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B22
Exam Name: HP (IPG Sales Fundamentals v8.1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 What are accurate descriptions of a first impression in business? (Select two.)
A. always positive
B. easy to change
C. difficult to change
D. based upon detailed information
E. made in the first 5 to 30 seconds
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Why has there been an increase in the use of color printing in business? (Select two.)
A. Businesses are printing more pictures.
B. It ischeaper than printing monochrome.
C. Fewer monochrome printers are available.
D. There are benefits of using color in documents.
E. There have been reductions in the cost of color printing.
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 What is a new trend in imaging and printing document workflow?
A. printing booklets
B. scan to email
C. printing and then copying documents
D. distributing hard copies of documents by hand
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is one result of the availability of digital content?
A. less need for paper documents
B. a decrease in the amount of printing
C. an increase in the amount of printing
D. more printed material included in product packages
Answer: B

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NO.5 How does the HP $3.6 billion R&D investment benefit HP resellers?
A. Accessories connect easily to HP devices.
B. HP devices have the biggest display screens.
C. Larger paper sizes are supported on HP devices.
D. Products and solutions create customer demand.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which imaging and printing process is becoming less important because of digital content?
A. printing
B. stapling
C. copying
D. scanning
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are the key printing technology trends?
A. color, convergence and networking
B. MFP, networking and AIO
C. VOIP, color, copying
D. digital fax, cluster print, AIO
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the three main reasons why customers print?
A. habit, easy, cheap
B. habit, color, media
C. habit, communicate, legal
D. habit, easy to file, easy to discard
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which printing trend is the result of the increase in original digital content.?
A. Fewer documents are being printed.
B. Business is not concerned about printing costs.
C. Documents are copied on paper and then distributed.
D. Documents are distributed electronically and then printed.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which HP Color LaserJet advantage can be attributed to HP Color Sphere technology?
A. superior reliability
B. fastest first page out
C. lowest cost per page
D. highest rated print quality
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-P14
Exam Name: HP (Planning & Design of HP Integrity)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which HP Partitioning Continuum feature is available for an Integrity cell-based system in a Windows
Server 2008 environment?
A. hard partitions (nPars)
B. logical partitions
C. VMware Virtual Machines
D. Secure Resource Partitions
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which HP Integrity server blade is shown in the exhibit?
A. Integrity BL860c
B. Integrity BL870c
C. Integrity BL870c i2
D. Integrity BL890c i2
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which new features are available with Secure Resource Partitioning (SRP) 2.1? (Select two.)
A. management GUI that is integrated with SMH and HP SIM
B. integration of Serviceguard packages into the SRP environment
C. single administration domain per system
D. expanded local administration
E. cloning and migration of secure resource partitions between systems
Answer: BE

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NO.4 In which environments can resource partitions be used according to HP best practices? (Select two.)
A. Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs)
B. processor sets (psets)
C. hard partitions (nPars)
D. virtual partitions (vPars)
E. service level objectives (SLOs)
Answer: CD

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NO.5 What are the differences between Integrity Virtual Machine (VM) and virtual partitions? (Select two.)
A. Integrity VM assigns processor resources to workloads according to service level objectives.
B. Integrity VM can run multiple operating system types and versions.
C. Virtual partitions use dedicated hardware, Integrity VM does not.
D. Virtual partitions can share memory and I/O resources between kernels.
E. Virtual partitions allow resources to be assigned down to 5% of a processor.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 The Itanium processor 9300 series delivers higher performance at peak workloads by increasing
voltage and frequencies beyond rated values without exceeding the processors thermal design power
envelope.
Which Itanium processor 9300 series feature delivers this capability?
A. event-switched Hyper-Threading
B. demand-based switching
C. Intel QuickPath Technology
D. Intel Turbo Boost Technology
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. memory scrubbing technology
B. address control parity
C. chip spare?like memory protection
D. dynamic page deallocation
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which features are new with Integrity rx2800 i2 servers? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium 9300 series quad-core processors
B. 128GB of memory maximum
C. iLO 3 management processors
D. eight internal 2.5?SFF hot-plug disk drives maximum
E. eight DIMM slots
Answer: AC

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NO.9 To simplify storage management for an HP Integrity rx2660 customer with limited system administration
staff, you design a SAN solution that automates repetitive array processes. On which HP StorageWorks
disk array system should you base your design?
A. EFS Clustered Gateway
B. EVA4400
C. MSA2000i
D. XP24000
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your customer is considering replacing their mainframe with Integrity BL890c i2 server blades and
consolidating large data warehousing databases and applications.
Which operating system would best fit this customers need?
A. Windows
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. OpenVMS
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in
the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Your customer wants to purchase the newest Integrity servers that support Red Hat Enterprise Linux
or SuSE Linux Enterprise Server operating systems. Which Integrity servers should you recommend?
(Select two.)
A. Integrity BL860c
B. Integrity BL870c
C. Integrity BL870c i2
D. Integrity BL890c i2
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Core-to-core and core-to-I/O hub communication enables scalability in large multiprocessor systems
and increases capacity for I/O-intensive applications, such as transactional enterprise databases.
Which feature of Itanium processor 9300 series quad-core processors accelerates this capability?
A. Intel Scalable Memory Interconnect
B. Intel QuickPath Technology
C. Intel 7500 Scalable Memory Buffer
D. Intel Turbo Boost Technology
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which virtualization solution is available on Integrity mid-range servers, but not entry-level servers?
A. Integrity Virtual Machines (VM)
B. hard partitions within a node
C. HP-UX processor sets (psets)
D. Process Resource Manager (PRM)
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are planning a BladeSystem solution for a customer who wants to populate a c7000 enclosure with
one Integrity BL860c server blade and one BL870c server blade. The customer also wants one SB600c
storage blade, and one StorageWorks Ultrium tape blade to provide direct attach tape backup capability
for the BL860c.
What must you remember when designing this configuration?
A. The tape blade must be adjacent to the BL860c server blade in the enclosure.
B. You must connect the SB600c storage blade and the Ultrium tape blade to the same server blade.
C. HP Data Protector Express Single Server Edition must be purchased separately.
D. You must install a PCIe Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card for HP BladeSystem c-Class to connect the
storage blade to the BL870c server blade.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Your customer has asked you how HP virtual partitions compare with IBM virtual partitions.What can
you tell the customer about the problems IBM has with its virtual partitions.?
A. With IBM Virtual I/O (VIO), I/O partitions constitute a single point of failure.
B. AIX and POWER blades do not support virtual partitions.
C. IBM servers cannot manage virtual partitions and hard partitions with the same management software.
D. IBM partitioning dedicates I/O to each virtual partition, which results in slower I/O performance.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which functions are available through the Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI)? (Select two.)
A. controlling and managing the power utilization
B. configuring HP Integrated Lights-Out 3 (iLO 3) access
C. maintaining boot options
D. resetting the management processor to factory default
E. installing an operating system
Answer: CE

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NO.19 Which function does Integrated Lights-Out 2 (iLO 2) perform on Integrity rx8640 and rx7640 servers?
A. deallocates the processor and memory during a failure
B. initializes system LAN and SAN hardware
C. manages online replace/add/delete
D. reports system status
Answer: D

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NO.20 How does HP Integrated Lights-Out 3 (iLO 3) benefit an Integrity server system?
A. It increases operating system reliability.
B. It permits communication between cells of a cell-based system.
C. It increases security by encrypting traffic over the Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI).
D. It enables system management when the operating system is not booted.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y31
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 144 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which authentication protocol provides mutual authentication for both the supplicant and the
authentication server?
A. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C. Microsoft CHAP version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)-Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Answer: C

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NO.2 HP E5400 zl switches have the ability to mirror traffic from one switch to another. Which action should
you take when implementing remote mirroring?
A. Configure a connection-rate filter.
B. Enable the instrumentation monitor.
C. Enable jumbo frames.
D. Enable a bandwidth limit.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When the following command is issued at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl switch at factory default settings,
which Spanning Tree version is enabled?
E5406(config)# spanning-tree
A. STP+
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is an advantage of locating intelligent routing at the edge of an enterprise network instead of only
in the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and MSTP for default gateway redundancy.
B. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
C. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies route summarization because only routers must support VLANs
only for directly connected users.
D. The edge-oriented strategy allows traffic to traverse the network after the routing decisions have been
made.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When a router must determine which route to include in its route table, when does the router use
administrative distance in the decision.?
A. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from static configurations or
different routing protocols
B. when the router has learned about multiple routes from equal-cost paths to the same destination
C. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
D. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using
the same routing protocol
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator has been tasked with implementing a dynamic port ACL on an HP E5400 zl Series
switch. Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. It can be implemented as either a standard or extended ACL.
B. It filters switched IP traffic either inbound or outbound on a designated port.
C. It requires the use of 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication services on the switch.
D. It is used where clients with differing access needs are likely to use the same port.
E. Configuration of the ACL is done on the switch and then read dynamically by a RADIUS server when a
user connects.
F. It can be applied to either a single physical port or to a link aggregation group.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 What is one security challenge that is specifically addressed by dynamically refreshing encryption keys?
A. Users forget their passwords and forget how to connect.
B. Hackers are more likely to crack a key when they have many frames encrypted with that key.
C. Asymmetric keys, which are more secure than symmetric keys, must be distributed dynamically.
D. Static encryptions keys can protect data's privacy, but not its integrity.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which mechanism enables two parties to agree on a symmetric key on their own without transmitting it
over the network?
A. Kerberos
B. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. Diffie-Hellman exchange
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator needs to create an ACL to block traffic from 192.168.10.23 to 192.168.10.100, which
are on the same subnet. Which type of ACL can be used to meet this need?
A. a standard ACL applied as Routed ACL (RACL)
B. an extended ACL applied as a Routed ACL (RACL)
C. a standard ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
D. an extended ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
Answer: D

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NO.10 You must configure an HP E5406 zl switch to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 20. What
must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must use an address on a multi-netted VLAN interface.
B. It must match the router's address on the VLAN 20 interface.
C. It must use a classless address.
D. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 20 on the Backup router.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Routed ACLs (RACLs) can be used to filter traffic on an HP E5400 zl switch. Which traffic is
inspected?
A. routed IP traffic arriving on one VLAN and leaving through another VLAN
B. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same VLAN
C. IP traffic entering a physical port, port list, or static trunk
D. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same subnet of a multinetted VLAN
Answer: A

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NO.12 You must configure four HP E8212 zl switches and six HP E5406 zl switches to support Multiple
Instance Spanning Tree (MSTP) on a network. What must you do to ensure that all the switches join the
same MST region?
A. Configure the switches with identical Uplink Priorities for common switch-to-switch links.
B. Configure Bridge Priorities on each switch so that all MST instances have a different Root Bridge.
C. Configure the switches with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance mappings.
D. Configure all switch-to-switch links in each MST instance as tagged members of all VLANs.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You have an HP Networking Switch E5400 zl that has two configured VLANs. VLAN 100 has an IP
address range of 10.1.100.0/24 and is where the servers reside. VLAN 36 has an IP address range of
10.1.36.0/24 and is where the network clients reside. You configure an ACL with the following entries:
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq https
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ssh
When you apply this ACL statically to ports in VLAN 36, what is the effect on the clients located in VLAN
36?
A. They have no access because the ACL is misconfigured.
B. They cannot access anything in the 10.1.100.0 subnet because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
C. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but no access elsewhere.
D. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but full access to everything else
in the 10.1.100.0 subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which RADIUS packet includes the Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) that are applied to customize a user
connection?
A. Access-Update
B. Access-Request
C. Accounting-Request
D. Access-Accept
Answer: D

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NO.15 You must provide the capability for the Virtual IP address to be pinged if the Backup router assumes
the Master role when the Owner router fails. What is necessary to ensure this operation?
A. E8206(config)# router vrrp virtual-ip-ping
B. E8206(config)# vrrp 10 virtual-ip-ping
C. E8206(config)# router virtual-ip
D. E8206(config)# router ospf ip-ping
Answer: A

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NO.16 How does the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) improve network availability?
A. by providing redundant links between edge and core layers
B. by providing redundant connections to the Internet
C. by providing backup default gateways for client devices
D. by supporting the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-enabled clients
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which statement is true about the HP E5400 zl switch Connection-rate Filtering feature?
A. It detects threats with both a signature-based engine and an anomaly-based engine that can detect
zero day attacks.
B. A connection-rate ACL can be used to allow some or all inbound traffic through a port that has been
throttled or blocked.
C. It uses sFlow traffic sampling to determine whether traffic activity represents an intrusion.
D. The connection-rate filter sensitivity is configurable per port, VLAN, or link aggregation group.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Your CIO wants you to investigate IT defense in depth. What does this mean?
A. You need to purchase a deep-packet inspection Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
B. You need to upgrade your firewalls to next-generation firewalls.
C. You need to plan a comprehensive strategy that addresses security at many layers.
D. You need to leverage the network infrastructure built-in security features rather than look for
appliance-based solutions.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A company ¯ s he l p desk r eques t s access t o t he w eb i n t e rf ace o f va ri ous ne t w o r k i ng dev i ces . The
network administrator decides to implement a secure web interface using SSL. Which step is necessary
to complete this task on an HP E5400 zl switch?
A. import the certificate authority certificate
B. configure RADIUS for user login
C. generate a self-signed certificate
D. enable SSH
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which default gateway redundancy protocol is supported on HP E5400 zl switches?
A. XRRP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. FSRP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J42
Exam Name: HP (Introduction to HP SANs)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which commands can you use to review log files and traces on B-Series switches? (Select two.)
A. portlogshow
B. supportshow
C. portstatshow
D. logdownload
E. logsave
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which product enables you to verify the interoperation of switches and connected devices, such as
storage arrays, at protocol level?
A. Fabric Manager Server
B. Finisar Fibre Channel (FC) Analyzer
C. SAN Designer
D. Data Center Fabric Manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which single command is used for comprehensive data collection needed for next-level
troubleshooting of B-Series switches?
A. switchshow
B. errshow
C. portstatshow
D. supportsave
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can you increase customer trust in storage automation systems?
A. Reduce system error messages.
B. Restrict the design to well accepted virtualization techniques.
C. Involve the customer in the workflow.
D. Integrate the software in existing products.
Answer: C

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NO.5 During the verification of logs you observe an attenuation of 10 dB on a trunk port of a B-series 4/64
switch. What is the most probable reason?
A. chromatic dispersion
B. improperly seated cable
C. congested optical fiber
D. modal dispersion
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-A23
Exam Name: HP (NonStop NS-Series Servers Configuration and Planning)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 How is an NS-series server different from an S-series server?
A. An NS-series server does not ship with built-in batteries for backup power.
B. An NS-series server has a built-in USB port on the maintenance switch.
C. An NS-series server does not require water cooling.
D. An NS-series server does not require air conditioning.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which tool produces a report recommending disk cache changes based on evaluated
MEASURE
data?
A. NSX
B. SCF
C. GPA
D. XRAY
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which subsystems or utilities should you use to set up a Daylight Savings Time (DST) transition
table? (Select two.)
A. TIME
B. TACL
C. SCF
D. DSTCOM
E. ADDDST
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which cable type is valid for Ethernet connections for a maintenance LAN?
A. SCSI cable
B. MMF type fiber optic cable
C. Category 5 unshielded twisted pair
D. coaxial cable
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of Fiber Channel Disk Modules (FCDMs) that can be daisy
chained
together?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which equipment does an NS-series system need to detect a power failure RIDE_THRU when
all
AC grid power sources have failed?
A. a site-wide UPS supporting SNMP
B. an R5500 rack-mounted UPS
C. a site-wide UPS supporting SMTP
D. a PDU monitored by OSM
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which utility is used to set the number of ServerNet connections per fabric between a CLIM
and
each ServerNet switch?
A. SCF
B. OSM Low-Level Link (LLL)
C. OSM service connection (SC)
D. CLIMCOM
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which subsystem can be used to monitor state changes for a running application on a
NonStop
system?
A. Event Management Service
B. Spooler
C. TMF
D. Kernel Managed Swap Facility
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which utilities show object files that have been PROGID? (Select two.)
A. TPDC
B. DSAP
C. DCOM
D. FUP
E. PEEK
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 On a 16-processor NonStop NS-series or NB-series system, what is the maximum number of
processors that can be configured in the LAN adapter's access list?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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