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NO.1 What percentage of organizations in the world are currently looking to replace their Learning
Solution in the Market?
A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a typical deal size for a Performance Management solution?
A. $100to$200k
B. S200 to $300k
C. S300to$400k
D. $400to$500k
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the most important benefit of having a Performance Management system for an
organization?
A. The ability to set eligibility and enforce compensation policy for merit, bonus, stock, and variable
pay programs with linkages to performance
B. The ability to compare candidates side-by-side for fair and accurate analyses
C. The ability to have an integrated process that supports and provides insight into performance
ratings, organizational skills, and compensation management.
D. The ability to configure any number of performance forms to any process
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the typical selling cycle for a Performance Management solution?
A. 1 to 3 Months
B. 3 to 6 Months
C. 6 to 9 Months
D. 9 to 12 Months
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can Kenexa's Performance Management solutions improve the way organizations are
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A. Provide access to standard appraisals
B. Built in standard goal setting
C. Functionality that allows a manager to determine pay increases based on performance
D. Provide a suite of capabilities along with deep competency knowledge
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NO.6 The Kenexa LMS (Learning Management System) performs all of the following capabilities
EXCEPT:
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B. Automate the development and publishing of modular personalized learning
C. Administrate content and courses in support of a classroom, online or social learning
environment
D. Track and report on curriculum status for a learner
Answer: D

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NO.1 How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts as
private by default".
Answer: B

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NO.2 An IBM Notes user kills the Notes client while its still busy waiting for input, and this results in
a new record in the Fault Reports database.
How will this type of crash be categorized in the version 9.0 By Disposition view?
A. Problem category
B. Informational category
C. Possible Problem (possibly actionable) category
D. Possible Problem (likely NOT actionable) category
Answer: C

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NO.3 Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance Tool
(dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan must make to
the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations performed by
Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use the
StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in the
calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight select
calendar entries.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Nancy is configuring an internet site document for federated login, but when she clicks on the
IdP Catalog button to select an IdP Configuration document, she cannot open the IdP Catalog
application. What could be the cause of this problem?
A. Nancy does not have access rights to the IdP Catalog Application.
B. The Open Social Component is not installed on her IBM Notes client.
C. Nancy does not have rights to run unrestricted agents on the IBM Domino server.
D. Nancy's Workstation ECL does not recognize the signer of the IdP Catalog Application.
Answer: A

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NO.6 If both the IBM iNotes and IBM Notes clients are being used, what should the "Session
authentication" field be set to in the Server document > Internet Protocols > Domino Web Engine
tab on the IBM Domino server running Shindig?
A. none
B. Disabled
C. Single Server
D. Multiple Servers (SSO)
Answer: D

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NO.7 What tool is used to configure Tivoli Federated Identity Manager as the identity provider for
IBM Domino?
A. notes.ini file
B. IBM Notes client
C. Domino Web Administrator
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which document is used to configure IBM Docs integration with IBM Domino?
A. Server document
B. Person document
C. Server Configuration document
D. Mail Policy Settings document
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2150-596
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Exam Code: C2040-403
Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development
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NO.1 Which step must be completed before running the installation wizard for IBM Connections
4.0?
A. disconnect all database connections
B. install IBM Cognos Business Intelligence
C. stop IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
D. start IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which component is required to deploy the IBM Sametime Web client?
A. Sametime Proxy
B. Sametime Media
C. Sametime Connect
D. Sametime Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.3 Along with Login ID, which two options are required so that a developer can use the User SPI
to
retrieve more information about a person? (Choose two.)
A. Title
B. Address
C. Date of Birth
D. E-mail Address
E. Unique User ID
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 How would an administrator rebuild the placecatalog.nsf database on an IBM Lotus Quickr
server?
A. run the command load qptool rebuild -placecatalog
B. run the command load qptool recreate -placecatalog
C. bring down the server, delete the placecatalog.nsf database at the operating system level, and
restart the server
D. log into Lotus Quickr using a browser, go to the Site Administration link, and click the Recreate
PlaceCatalog button
Answer: C

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NO.5 By default, which address accesses the IBM Cognos server Content Manager?By default, which
address accesses the IBM Cognos server? Content Manager?
A. http://Host_Name/Context_Root/servlet
B. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/servlet
C. http://Host_Name:Port/Context_Root/cognos
D. http://Host_Name:Port/CongosServer/Context_Root/servlet
Answer: B

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NO.6 If the administrator needs to fix an IBM Lotus Quickr place, the QPTOOL server command can
be
used to lock it. What is the correct syntax to lock a place?
A. load qptoollock placename
B. load qptool placename lock
C. load qptool lock placename
D. load qptool lock -p placename
Answer: D

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NO.7 IBM Sametime Mobile is supported on which three platforms? (Choose three.)
A. iOS
B. Brew
C. MeeGo
D. webOS
E. Android
F. BlackBerry
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.8 What could improve chat performance in a large deployment?
A. decrease the IBM WebSphere logging level
B. add more servers to the Meeting server cluster
C. separate the Media Manager components into individual servers
D. increase the MaxUsersPort setting in the Microsoft Windows server registry
Answer: D

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NO.1 A customer is currently using MS SQL server as their database server. The customer
is planning to
implement IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1
(ITCAM for AD).
What is the database requirement?
A.A special ITCAM for AD V7.1 patch must be applied to support MS SQL server.
B.A particular MS SQL server patch must be applied to be used as an ITCAM for AD
database.
C.DB2 comes with the ITCAM for AD V7.1 software and can be installed locally on the
Managing Server
system.
D.Larger storage space is needed on the ITCAM for AD V7.1 Managing Server so it can be
activated and
use the ITCAM for AD internal database with a slight sacrifice of performance.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which two TERM options are supported during the installation of IBM Tivoli
Provisioning Manager?
(Choose two.)
A.tty
B.ansi
C.vt200
D.xterm
E.signal
Answer:BD

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NO.3 Which three Java Runtime Environments can be used for IBM Tivoli Composite
Application Manager
for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Data Collectors? (Choose three.)
A.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V7
B.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.4.2
C.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V6.0/1.6
D.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.3 and above
E.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.4.2 SR1
F.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.3 and above
Answer:BCE

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NO.4 What is the attribute group name for the WebSphere Agent Events?
A.KYNAPP
B.KYNPREV
C.KYNCONTNR
D.KYNLOGANAL
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which two parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Data Collector for
JSAS on iPlanet
Application Server (IAS)? (Choose two.)
A.SJSAS Domain Admin Server Listen Home
B.Sun Java System Application Server Home
C.Sun Java System Application Server Version
D.SJSAS Domain Admin Server Listen Address
E.Sun Java System Application Server Operating System
Answer:BC

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NO.6 What must be installed in order for a customer to use IBM Tivoli Composite
Application Manager for
Application Diagnostics V7.1 (ITCAM for AD) to perform deep-dive monitoring for their
WebSphere
Applications?
A.ITCAM for AD Agent for WebSphere Applications
B.ITCAM for AD Data Collector for WebSphere Applications
C.ITCAM for AD Extended Agent for WebSphere Application
D.ITCAM for AD Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent for WebSphere Applications
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer has a large WebSphere environment which requires high availability fail-
over for the
managing server. Which architecture should be used?
A.a single managing server
B.split managing server components into multi servers
C.a Hub Monitoring Server with two remote managing servers
D.two IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics management
regions with
two-way event forwarding between these two regions
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which three parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Collector for Oracle?
(Choose three.)
A.Oracle Home
B.Application Server Hostname
C.Application Server IP Address
D.Application Server Control Password
E.Application Server Control Host Name
F.Application Server Control User Name
Answer:DEF

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Exam Code: C2140-821
Exam Name: Collaborative Lifecycle Management
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Last Update: 2014-09-30

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Exam Code: M2080-663
Exam Name: IBM Digital Marketing Optimization Sales Mastery v1
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Exam Code: A2010-599
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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NO.1 What limitation is inherited by choosing Apache Derby as the database for the Jazz Team
Server?
A. CLM integrations between RRC and RQM will not work.
B. The Eclipse client for RTC cannot be used.
C. The web client for RTC cannot be used.
D. The deployment will be limited to ten total users.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does an administrator verify the database status for the Jazz Team Server?
A. navigate to the administrative page (https://<your server>:9443 /jts/admin)
B. open the Eclipse version of RTC and verify the 'server status' viewlet
C. check the server status light for verification of an active database
D. view the database schema by opening the DB2 or Oracle control center via the desktop shortcut
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two build engines is Rational Team Concert's Jazz build engine designed to work with?
(Choose two.)
A. Apache Gump
B. Hudson
C. CruiseControl
D. Bamboo
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which three sources can CLM use for user authentication? (Choose three.)
A. browser
B. LDAP
C. Tomcat User Registry
D. non-LDAP external registry services
E. database server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which statement BEST describes the architecture of Rational Reporting for Development
Intelligence (RRDI)?
A. The report server can only create reports related to Quality Management data.
B. The content store server extracts, transforms, and loads data into a data warehouse.
C. The report server uses data collected in the data warehouse to create reports.
D. The report server must be connected to Rational Publishing Engine to create reports.
Answer: C

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NO.6 For which two purposes does CLM use absolute URIs? (Choose two.)
A. to locate clients attached to the server
B. to act as a stable resource identification for all applications
C. to act as a proxy for other systems
D. to permit consistent web access to stored artifacts
E. to reduce the size of any URL referencing stored artifacts
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 What are three limitations when each CLM application has its own Jazz Team Server (JTS)?
(Choose three.)
A. Applications cannot be consolidated to point to single JTS later on.
B. The same LDAP server cannot be used for each JTS.
C. Project areas cannot be managed with the Lifecycle Project Administration application.
D. Each application cannot be run on its own application server.
E. A client access license cannot be used on multiple servers.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 What are three supported CLM clients? (Choose three.)
A. Eclipse
B. Oracle Netbeans
C. Microsoft Visual Studio
D. Borland Delphi
E. web browser
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: C2010-595
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Fundamentals
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Exam Code: M2020-615
Exam Name: IBM Business Analytics Performance Management Sales Mastery Test v2
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NO.1 Which statement is true when working with condition codes?
A. Only one condition code can be used per item set.
B. Condition codes are not considered when an item is issued.
C. A condition rate of 100% must exist for at least one condition code.
D. Condition codes can only be associated with an item in the Item Master application.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When is a flow control action executed?
A. when a work order is saved through flow control
B. when the work order is started through a workflow
C. when the work order is started through a flow control
D. when the work order is completed through a workflow
Answer: B

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NO.3 How should a user create an association between items and an asset?
A. Go to the Assets application and from the Items tab, add the items.
B. Go to the Assets application and from the Spare Parts tab. add the items.
C. Go to the Assets application and from the Select Action menu, choose Associate Items.
D. Go to the Assets application and from the Select Action menu, choose Add/Modify Asset.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does it mean when a purchase contract has a status of WSTART?
A. The contract has been revised to start.
B. The contract is waiting for approval to start.
C. The start date of this contract is in the future.
D. WSTART is not a valid status for a purchase contract.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the two file formats in which scheduled reports can be e-mailed to a recipient?
A. TXT
B. GIF
C. XLS
D. PDF
E. DOC
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 When would an approved purchase order (PO) need to be revised?
A. change of status
B. change to an internal PO
C. changes to quantity of items ordered
D. cancellation of a PO after goods are received
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which tab in the Query-based Reporting dialog allows fields to be added to the report?
A. Style
B. Select
C. Format
D. Submit
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about rotating items?
A. Rotating items are consumable parts.
B. Rotating items cannot be returned for repair.
C. Rotating items can only be installed at a location.
D. Rotating items can have an inventory value and balance.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP3-C36
Exam Name: HP LaserJet Enterprise 600 M601, M602, and M603 Series Printer Service and Support
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Exam Code: HP0-S40
Exam Name: Building HP Server Solution
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Exam Code: HP2-W104
Exam Name: Selling HP TippingPoint Security Solutions
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NO.1 Which Gen8 server functionality provides embedded HP system software such as firmware,
drivers, and configuration tools?
A. HP Intelligent Provisioning
B. HP SmartStart
C. HP Agentless Management
D. HP Insight Remote Support
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the LED labeled B indicate?
A. Fault status
B. Do not remove
C. Disk activity
D. drive locator
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which tool or utility allows customers to track maintenance contract and product warranty
status?
A. HP System Management Homepage
B. HP Insight Online
C. HP Active Health System
D. HP Insight Control
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are characteristics of a BL465c? (Select two.)
A. It supports dual expansion blades.
B. It has three mezzanine expansion slots.
C. It has four CPU sockets.
D. It has an AMD-based processor.
E. It is half-height.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A DL380p Gen8 server is running a mission critical application. You need to add a hot spare
drive to the server to help protect the disk environment without causing downtime
Which utility should you use?
A. Smart Storage Administrator (SSA)
B. Options ROM for Configuring Arrays (ORCA)
C. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. HP Smart Update Manager (SUM)
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your customer is using the DHCP server to assign IP addresses to the BladeSystemiLOs. The
customer is experiencing problems accessing iLO because of DHCP downtime. What is an
alternative fully supported method of assigning IP addresses to the iLO?
A. Configure a DNS server on the management subnet.
B. Use the SNMP agent.
C. Enable Enclosure Bay IP Addressing.
D. Configure DHCP relay agent on the management subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are differences between the c3000 and c7000 enclosures? (Select two)
A. support for full height blades
B. total number of blade bays
C. integrated Insight Display
D. size of rack footprint
E. maximum number of Onboard Administrator modules
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which advanced function of HP OneView provides a 3D model of the environment and also
displays power and temperature data?
A. MAP view
B. Activity screen
C. iLO Advanced
D. Data Centers screen
Answer: C

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Exam Name: ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)
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Exam Name: Agile Scrum Foundation
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NO.1 During a Sprint, the team completes four stories with story points 3, 5, 8 and 2 respectively.
They further complete half a story with a story point of 13.
What is the velocity of the team?
A. 18
B. 24.5
C. 31
Answer: A

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NO.2 A team decided to install a large traffic light in the team hall to indicate whether the latest
build was healthy (green), failing a few tests (orange) or failing high priority tests (red).
What term can be used to describe the traffic light?
A. Information radiator
B. Osmotic communication
C. Triangulation
Answer: A

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NO.3 Who is the owner of a Sprint Backlog Item during the Sprint Planning meeting?
A. The entire team owns all Sprint Backlog Items.
B. The Product Owner owns all Sprint Backlog Items.
C. The team member working on the item owns that item.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When is a Sprint complete?
A. When all of the Product Backlog items are completed.
B. When all the tasks in the Sprint Backlog are completed.
C. When the Sprint defined time box ends.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A 200 member project team is working on a large and complex system with multiple
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As a Scrum Master, what would your best advice be?
A. Scrum is not suited for such a large project. The team should clearly use the Waterfall method or
the Crystal Clear method.
B. Ask all potential members of the project team to have a meeting first and decide if they agree to
use Scrum.
C. Agree a logical sub-division of the system so that smaller Scrum teams can work on sub-systems
and can add tangible value.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Scrum team failed to meet the Sprint objectives. One of the key members of the team fell ill
and was away for two days right at the beginning of the four week Sprint.
What is the most likely reason that the team did not meet the Sprint objectives?
A. The Product Owner is unable to prioritize.
B. The team is lacking skills.
C. The team did not plan the Sprint effectively.
D. The team is over-worked.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer requests a report that summarizes functionality added and defects found and fixed,
right at the end of a Sprint.
Who may best prepare this report?
A. The Product Owner
B. The Scrum Master
C. The team
D. This type of report should not be prepared.
Answer: B

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NO.8 How does Agile bring predictability to the Planning process?
A. By allowing the customers to review the progress often.
B. By assigning most of the responsibility to the Product Owner.
C. By making the team self-organized and self-planning.
D. By providing early visibility into the team's progress.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ECP-541
Exam Name: Ericsson Certified GGSN-MPG and GPG Professional
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Last Update: 2014-09-28

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NO.1 What does TCP use to set up a connection?
A. Two-way handshake
B. Sliding window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Four-way handshake
Answer: C

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NO.2 An edge router forwards a mixture of VoIP and IPTV traffic over the same port.
Which two QoS scheduling algorithms would you use to assure good VoIP call quality when the port
is congested? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. WFQ
C. PWFQ
D. WRED
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which action is performed by router R4?
A. pop
B. swap
C. PHP
D. push
Answer: B

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NO.4 IPv6 addresses can be classified into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. hexcast
E. unicast
Answer: A,C,E

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10. Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the next hop (A, B, C, or D) for traffic arriving at R2 and destination
network 192.168.3.0?
A. Next Hop A
B. Next Hop B
C. Next Hop C
D. Next Hop D
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three techniques allow for the co-existence of IPv4 and IPv6 networks?
A. tunneling
B. anycasting
C. translation
D. encoding
E. dual-stacking
Answer: B

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NO.6 Computer A with IP address 192.168.1.1 / 24 wants to send a packet to computer B with IP
address 192.168.2.1 / 24. Which statement is correct?
A. Computer A will send an ARP request to computer B
B. Computer A will encode the destination MAC address of computer B
C. Computer A will use its default gateway.
D. Computer A will send a network discovery request to computer B
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct about link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
B. Paths are chosen based upon the number of hops to the destination.
C. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
D. In a multipoint network, all routers exchange routing tables directly with all the routers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which two statements are correct regarding QoS in an IP network using DiffServ?(Choose two.)
A. High priority traffic can be dropped by any router in the network.
B. Packets belonging to the same QoS class always traverse the same path regardless of IGP
topology change.
C. Routers reserve required bandwidth before they start forwarding packets for a given class.
D. QoS procedures applied to a given traffic class are the same for all routers within the DiffServ
domain.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 156-215.76
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA
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NO.1 An Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new IPSO-based R76 Security
Gateway over the weekend. He e-mailed you the SIC activation key. You want to confirm
communication between the Security Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Policy.
What might prevent you from installing the Policy?
A. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway
and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on the Security Management Server.
B. You first need to create a new Gateway object in SmartDashboard, establish SIC via the
Communication button, and define the Gateway's topology.
C. An intermediate local Security Gateway does not allow a policy install through it to the remote
new Security Gateway appliance. Resolve by running the command fw unloadlocal on the local
Security Gateway.
D. You first need to run the command fw unloadlocal on the R75 Security Gateway appliance in
order to remove the restrictive default policy.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A digital signature:
A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where is the easiest and BEST place to find information about connections between two
machines?
A. On a Security Gateway Console interface; it gives you detailed access to log files and state table
information.
B. On a Security Management Server, using SmartView Tracker.
C. All options are valid.
D. On a Security Gateway using the command fw log.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which type of R76 Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A. FTP Security Server
B. SMTP Security Server
C. HTTPS Security Server
D. HTTP Security Server
Answer: B

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NO.5 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
After selecting Packages > Distribute Only and choosing the target Gateway, the:
A. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to
the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.
B. selected package is copied from the CD-ROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security
Gateway and the installation IS performed.
C. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation.
D. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to
the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When
Network Address Translation is used:
A. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
B. The Security Gateway's ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.
D. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In order to have full control, you decide to use Manual NAT entries instead of Automatic NAT
rules. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. When using Static NAT, you must enter ARP entries for the Gateway on all hosts that are using the
NAT Gateway with that Gateway's internal interface IP address.
B. When using Static NAT, you must add proxy ARP entries to the Gateway for all hiding addresses.
C. If you chose Automatic NAT instead, all necessary entries are done for you.
D. When using Dynamic Hide NAT with an address that is not configured on a Gateway interface,
you need to add a proxy ARP entry for that address.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75
configuration?
A. Execute command upgrade_export
B. Database Revision Control
C. Policy Package Management
D. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server
Answer: A

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Exam Code: QIA
Exam Name: Qualified Internal Auditor
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NO.1 Audits vary in their degree of objectivity. Of the following, which is likely to be the most
objective?
A. Compliance audit of company's overtime policy.
B. Operational audit of the personnel function hiring and firing procedures.
C. Performance audit of the marketing department.
D. Financial control audit over payroll procedures.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Reporting to senior management and the board is an important part of the auditor's
obligation.
Which of the following items is not required to be reported to senior management and/or the board?
A. Subsequent to the completion of an audit, but prior to the issuance of an audit report, the audit
senior in charge of the audit was offered a permanent position in the auditee's department.
B. An annual report summary of the department's audit work schedule and financial budget.
C. Significant interim changes to the approved audit work schedule and financial budget.
D. An audit plan was approved by senior management and the board. Subsequent to the approval,
senior management informed the audit director not to perform an audit of a division because the
division's activities were very sensitive.
Answer: A

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NO.3 During the audit of inventories, an internal auditor specified a precision of 5% instead of the
4% contained in the preliminary audit program.
What would be the impact of the change in precision?
A. A decrease in population standard deviation.
B. An increase in population standard deviation.
C. A decrease in required sample size
D. An increase in required sample size
Answer: C

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NO.4 The control self-assessment (CSA) is a
A. Directive auditing tool.
B. Preventive auditing tool.
C. Detective auditing tool.
D. Corrective auditing tool.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The primary concern in a program results audit is a determination that
A. Financial statements are presented in accordance with International Financial Reporting
Standards.
B. Desired benefits are being achieved.
C. The entity has complied with laws and regulations.
D. Resources are managed economically and efficiently.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How does CSA differ from traditional methods of auditing?
A. Shifts some of the responsibilities away from the auditors towards others such as work teams.
B. Allocated additional responsibilities to internal audit.
C. Reduces the level of collaboration required between managers and internal auditor.
D. Allows assessment to be carried out without any internal audit involvement whatsoever,
therefore allowing them to focus their attention on other areas of theorganization.
Answer: A

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NO.7 To test compliance with a policy regarding sales returns recorded during the most recent year,
an auditor systematically selected 5% of the actual returns recorded in March and April. Returns
during these two busiest months of the year represented about 25% of total annual returns.
Error projections from this sample have limited usefulness because
A. The small size of the sample relative to the population makes sampling risk unacceptable.
B. The failure to stratify the population according to sales volume results in bias.
C. The systematic selection of returns during the two months is not sufficiently random.
D. The error rates during the two busiest months may not be representative of the whole year.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The requirements for staffing level, education and training, and audit research should be
included in
A. The internal auditing department's charter.
B. The internal auditing department's policies and procedures manual.
C. The annual plan for the internal auditing department.
D. Job descriptions for the various staff positions.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part4
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills
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NO.1 According to research on the international contingency model of leadership, which path-goal
leadership style is most likely to be accepted around the world as culturally appropriate?
A. Directive.
B. Participative.
C. Supportive.
D. Achievement-oriented.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A participative style entails consultation with employees and serious attention to their ideas. The
participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. Every
country surveyed found it to be culturally acceptable.

NO.2 The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to
group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another
person's work?
A. Loyalty cliques.
B. Destructive competition.
C. Empire building.
D. Posturing.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Posturing is an attempt to make a good impression, for example, by taking credit for others' work or
seeking to stay one jump ahead of a rival.

NO.3 A corporation is performing research to determine the feasibility of entering the truck rental
industry.The decision to enter the market is most likely to be deterred if:
A. Buyer switching costs are high.
B. Buyers view the product as differentiated.
C. The market is dominated by a small consortium of buyers.
D. Buyers enjoy large profit margins.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
When purchasing power is concentrated in a few buyers or when buyers are well organized, their
bargaining power is greater. This effect is reinforced when sellers are in a capitalintensive industry,
such as trucking.

NO.4 Some studies show that managers spend 60 to 70% of their time communicating and that
nearly 60% of that time is spent listening. Listening effectiveness is best increased by:
A. Resisting both internal and external distractions.
B. Waiting to review key concepts until the speaker is through talking.
C. Tuning out messages that do not seem to fit the meeting purpose.
D. Factoring in biases to evaluate the information being given.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Concentrating on what the speaker is saying is critical to effective listening. This result is best
achieved by resisting internal and external distractions. Physical distractions such as noise, a
tendency to be overly aware of the speaker's physical and other differences from the listener,
focusing on interesting details at the expense of major points, or emotional reactions to a statement
with which the listener disagrees should be avoided.

NO.5 Which of the following concepts is not consistent with a successful authoritarian organization?
A. Each subordinate should only have one superior.
B. Superiors may have as many subordinates as possible within the superior's span of control.
C. Responsibility may be delegated.
D. The hierarchy of authority should be precisely defined.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Taylor, Fayol, and other traditionalists advocated the creation of authoritarian organizations. One of
the criteria for success was the ability to delegate authority but not responsibility. Responsibility
should always remain with the person who made the decision.

NO.6 The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered
in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a
common currency has been adopted by the nations of:
A. NAFTA.
B. Mercosul.
C. APEC.
D. The European Union.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers
among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The
euro is the common currency of the European Union.

NO.7 With the shift in some countries' economies toward service industries, a new form of
organization has developed. This organization structure is referred to as the professional
bureaucracy. While this structure resembles the machine bureaucracy which relies on standardized
work processes) in several respects, it is different in one key aspect. This significant difference is that
in a professional bureaucracy:
A. Senior management has had to give up a substantial amount of control.
B. Tasks are accomplished with a high degree of efficiency.
C. There is strict adherence to rules.
D. There is a tendency for subunit conflicts to develop.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A professional bureaucracy e.g., a university or library) is a complex and formal but decentralized
organization in which highly trained specialists have great autonomy. The jobs performed by these
professionals require years of education and training. By their nature, such jobs can be performed
effectively only if the employees are afforded substantial autonomy.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.